My session at the Congress in Ottawa went very nicely and there were some interesting and thought-provoking questions from the audience. (Only 3 of the 40 odd people in attendance walked out prior to my summation and conclusions.) However, a frequently made objection to my Habermasian claim that both moral justification and moral rightness are constituted by mutual agreement under conditions of discourse (symmetry and reciprocity) was that i.e., what makes slavery wrong, or torturing innocents wrong, or boiling babies wrong, is not that these respective maxims could not attain agreement under conditions of discourse, but rather that there was something intrinsically wrong about such maxims and actions. Moral persons, this is to say, just don't do such things. And if they ask themselves whether they're justified in not performing such acts, their moral dispositions are eo ipso in question due to asking "one question too many" as Bernie Williams was wont to say. I have yet to find a cogent account of how moral wrongness or rightness can be "intrinsic" to a maxim or action and I continue to believe that proponents of this idea are deluded by a kind of unsubstantiated metaphysics that both democracy and post-metaphysical moral epistemology are justified in sternly eschewing. However, the ubiquitousness of this critique makes me wonder if I'm missing something here. Anyone? Moral anti-realism forever, Walter O MUN ------------------------------------------------------------------ To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html