Thought you might be interested in this response to Philippa Foot's death<http://edgeofthewest.wordpress.com/2010/10/04/philippa-foot-has-died/> . John On Thu, Oct 7, 2010 at 9:13 AM, Donal McEvoy <donalmcevoyuk@xxxxxxxxxxx>wrote: > > --- On Wed, 6/10/10, Robert Paul <rpaul@xxxxxxxx> wrote: > > >As Foot nowhere said what was reported above the criticism of it is a > fortiori not a criticism of a philosophical view held by her. Whether anyone > else believes it, I don't know.> > > JLS (not the band) comments "Again, one would need to trace one's argument > back to Foot's actual words, not her obituarist." It would seem the > obituarist believed it was her view. It was the reported view I was > criticising (obviously). If she were alive it might be proper to clarify > this and, in the light of Robert Paul's remark, retract any possible > suggestion it was her actual view, if it was not. > > >The 'Naturalistic Fallacy,' in ethics was presented in G. E. Moore's > Principia Ethica, in 1903. The Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy gives an > account of it, of which this is part.> > > It is not necessary to identify the 'naturalistic fallacy' with Moore's > views any more than it is necessary to identify the right account of > 'dialectical materialism' with Marx, or of utilitarianism with Bentham, or > of 'empiricism' with Locke, or of 'falsificationism' with Popper, or of 'the > private language argument' with Wittgenstein. > > In broad terms the 'naturalistic fallacy' is about whether an 'ought' can > be derived from an 'is' or whether a standard of evaluation can be deduced > from a set of facts. As such, it predates Moore in the form of 'Hume's Fork' > and in Kant's 'Critique of Practical Reason' etc. It was a central > contention of P's _TOS&IE_ that forms of the fallacy lie at the heart of > many political theories, including those of Plato, Hegel and Marx. Any view > that seeks not merely to partially explain but to fully reductively explain > 'morality' in factual terms, is arguably perpetrating the fallacy. > > The argument Popper uses in the addendum of the _TOS_, under the heading > 'The Dualism of Facts and Standards' [afair], was presented in summary in my > previous post and differs from Moore's argument, not least because it > crucially does not rely on any definitional argument. As suggested by the > entry Robert quotes, "The merits of [Moore's definitional] argument are > questionable..." That is, the view that the dualism of facts and standards > can be established, by showing its negation cannot be true by definition, is > weak - as this would not show the dualism was true by definition either:- in > truth the 'dualism' here is unavoidably a metaphysical/untestable claim. > > It is therefore possible to reject Popper's argument - for example, on the > basis that, while it might seem that the open-ended ability to ask of any > given 'fact' "Is it good?" shows we can always open up a critical gap > between facts and standards, it is delusion to think our answer to the > question "Is it good?" is other than factually determined and so the > apparent 'gap' is a delusion also. > > Taking this issue further, for Popper, would involve examining the notions > of 'determinism' [which is the focus of his "The Open Universe: An Argument > For Indeterminism"] and 'reductive explanation'. An interesting logical > point Popper makes about 'reductive explanation' is that a confusion > underpins much support for 'reductive explanation':- a confusion between a > scientific reduction which increases falsifiability/testability by, say, > accounting for 'facts' previously requiring more than one theory by way of > only one theory of wider scope and thus testability, and a 'metaphysical > reduction' which lessens falsifiability by denying the existence of a class > of entities [such as 'mental events' that are not merely 'physical events'; > or 'moral claims' that are not merely explicable in 'factual terms'] where > any class of such entities are potential falsifiers of the view that denies > their existence. > > Another important point he makes is that while there have been some > partially successful reductions there have not been any completely > successful ones: Russell failed in his attempt to completely reduce maths to > logic, and while there have been some successful partial reductions in > science it remains the case that chemistry is not completely reducible to > physics nor biology to chemistry. This incompleteness of 'reductive > explanation' is linked to the fact that distinct and 'higher-level' problems > emerge as we progress from logic to maths and as we progress from > considering the physics of the world to its chemistry, then biology, then > psychology, then sociology etc. > > Donal > > > > > > ------------------------------------------------------------------ > To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, > digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html > -- John McCreery The Word Works, Ltd., Yokohama, JAPAN Tel. +81-45-314-9324 jlm@xxxxxxxxxxxx http://www.wordworks.jp/