no, certainly not. count(*) and count(<any constant>) should return the same result, under all circumstances.there used to be a performance difference, in the past. kind regards, Lex. --------------------------------------------- Visit my website at http://www.naturaljoin.nl --------------------------------------------- -----Original Message----- From: oracle-l-bounce@xxxxxxxxxxxxx [mailto:oracle-l-bounce@xxxxxxxxxxxxx] On Behalf Of Mercadante, Thomas F Sent: Tuesday, February 15, 2005 13:58 To: 'joelgarry@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx'; oracle-l@xxxxxxxxxxxxx Subject: RE: is it possible in pl/sql? Does anyone know what the difference between count(*) & count(1) was *supposed* to be? Is there a theoretical functional difference? -----Original Message----- From: Joel Garry [mailto:joelgarry@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx] Sent: Monday, February 14, 2005 7:35 PM To: oracle-l@xxxxxxxxxxxxx Subject: Re: is it possible in pl/sql? Anthony Wilson wrote: >it's a myth according to the venerable Tom Kyte. The SQL engine silently rewrites >count(1) to count(*): Funny, he mentions that is a fact, but I've missed the reference to where the fact is shown. Though I'm inclined to believe anything Tom says, I find this particular one ironic in that he is talking about facts and opinions when he says it. And I'm certainly glad he mentions the differing case of 7.x, as that means I didn't get the myth completely out of thin air or confused it with some other function. Just means that old habits die hard. Joel Garry http://www.garry.to -- //www.freelists.org/webpage/oracle-l -- //www.freelists.org/webpage/oracle-l -- //www.freelists.org/webpage/oracle-l