[opendtv] Re: News: Ownership of TV Sets Falls in U.S.
- From: "Manfredi, Albert E" <albert.e.manfredi@xxxxxxxxxx>
- To: "opendtv@xxxxxxxxxxxxx" <opendtv@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Tue, 3 May 2011 15:24:11 -0500
Craig Birkmaier WROTE:
> An interesting report, but it makes one wonder about the quality of the
> analysis.
>
> Nowhere in this report do we see the that some people simply are saying NO to
> TV. I would suggest that THIS is the main reason the number of homes without
> a TV is growing.
The report *implies*, at least, that a young person moving away from home, and
not subscribing to cable right away, would be considered a non-TV household? Is
this possible?
Here's the quote:
"Then there are the tech-savvy Americans who once lived in a household with a
television, but no longer do. These are either cord-cutters - a term that
refers to people who stop paying for cable television - or people who never
signed on for cable."
I'm not sure I understand what this says. If someone buys a TV without a cable
subscription, does Nielsen ignore that household?
Or what about someone who buys a TV card for his PC, and uses that to watch
televisions? Is that household also missed?
Since we keep reading about all the other ways people have to watch TV these
days, including Hulu/iTunes, et al., I cannot understand why that trend would
not automatically result in fewer "TV households," depending how that term is
defined.
What I see, day in and day out, is more and more people glued to their personal
electronic toys on an almost permanent basis. It is also possible that these
addicts are finding "no time" for TV watching. If that's a factor, I'm not so
sure I would be gloating about it, Craig.
Bert
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