[lit-ideas] Re: [lit-ideas] Le Pesanteur et la Grâce
- From: "Erin Holder" <erin.holder@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- To: <lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Fri, 6 Aug 2004 23:17:17 -0400
Oh. Sure. Crystal. :)
Erin
TO
----- Original Message -----
From: <Jlsperanza@xxxxxxx>
To: <lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
Sent: Friday, August 06, 2004 11:13 PM
Subject: [lit-ideas] Le Pesanteur et la Grâce
>
> In a message dated 8/6/2004 10:38:10 PM Eastern Standard Time,
> erin.holder@xxxxxxxxxxx writes:
> Okay, I made up my own version as to what number one must mean, so I can
> feel like I'm making progress, and now I'm on to number two.
> "The demonstrable correlation of opposites is an image of the
> transcendental
> correlation of contradictories."
> Someone help me here or I won't make it to three.
> ---- P. F. Strawson once said that what can be said nonsensically in one
> language can be said nonsensically in another (cited by Mundle, Critique
of
> Linguistic Philosophy). This may be a case in point? The original: "La
> correlation demonstrable des opposites est an image de la correlation
trascendentale
> des contradictories." --- tr. into English by Arthur Wills. What Weil may
have
> in mind is Aristotle's Square of Opposition? (Affirmo, Nego):
>
> A E
>
> I O
>
> Consider 'red', 'blue', and 'non-blue'. If x is blue, then x is not red.
If
> x is blue, then x is not non-blue. That x is not blue if x is red is a
> _demonstrable_ correlation (it can be demonstrated). What this is an
'image' of is
> the _trascendental_ (and thus non-demonstrable by 'deductive' logic)
> correlation of 'blue' and 'non-blue'. One minor problem is that for Kant
(and
> Kantians) trascendental correlations are just as demonstrable as your c
> ommon-or-garden 'demonstrable' correlation. In fact, Kant speaks of the
'trascendental
> deduction'. Perhaps he should mean 'ab-duction', though. Clear? :-)
> Cheers,
>
> JL
>
>
>
>
>
>
>
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