--- On Mon, 18/5/09, Jlsperanza@xxxxxxx <Jlsperanza@xxxxxxx> wrote: > Surely the Germans are able to do _without_ 'thing' (ding) > in your > expressions, so why can't the English? No. They do without them in _their_ expressions. When they do without them in English expressions they speak solecistically. So why don't the English? Because they speak good English. Compare: if English uses 'thing', why can't the Germans? Donal And yes to the other question if you can believe I meant to write Pipper ------------------------------------------------------------------ To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html