[lit-ideas] Re: PI's 'key tenet' and W's philosophy of mathematics

  • From: Donal McEvoy <donalmcevoyuk@xxxxxxxxxxx>
  • To: "lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx" <lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • Date: Sat, 9 Jun 2012 17:19:43 +0100 (BST)




________________________________
 From: "Jlsperanza@xxxxxxx" <Jlsperanza@xxxxxxx>


>Grice and Griceians assume, rightly, that Witters was confused as to what  
he meant by 'rule' -- in general, most German speakers are: the famous 
passage  in "Three men in a bummel" illustrate this: the little old English 
lady 
who  cannot understand a German 'rule' --. In particular Grice spent some 
time with  Searle's use of Wittgensteian variations on rule -- also Rawls. For 
Wittgensteinians like Rawls, or Wittgenstein, there are two types of 
'rules' --  both are confused. So we need to specify.

One is the 'regulatory rule', that Grice found otiose: 'for what can a rule 
do but regulate?'. The other is the 'constitutive rule', which is not a 
rule. 

The idea, a Wittgensteinian one, that we 'follow a rule' is otiose.>

I am not at all sure W is confused as to a "rule" as suggested, nor that 
considering how we 'follow a rule' is otiose - as 'rule-following 
considerations' are central to what W seeks to show in PI as to how we gather 
the sense of language. 

But we should be careful not to assimilate W's position to some position that 
is actually antithetical to his, and this is easily done: we must look at the 
purpose of what W writes, which lies in what W seeks to show. 

On my suggested interpretation of PI, it turns out that W is not trying to say 
what a "rule"is, or to say how a "rule" demarcates sense from nonsense, or 
tosay what constitutes obeying or going against a "rule", or tosay how the 
sense of language is set by its "rules" etc. (even though we might expect that 
this is what a philosopher of language should be saying) - on the contrary, it 
is central to W's POV that any attempt to say any of these would be a 
misconceived attempt to say what can only be shown. For example, it is actually 
an implication of the ‘key tenet’ that it
would be futile to try to say what
counts as obeying a “rule” and what counts as disobeying a “rule”, as what
counts as either is like the sense of a “rule” itself: something that can be 
shown but not said. 

When we understand W's purpose and the underlying 'key tenet', we see that 
terms like "rule" and "criterion" are being used to very different ends than 
those we might otherwise expect. 

That W is against 'saying' what he maintains can only be shown is shown again 
and again in PI, for example in his famous view that it is not the task of the 
philosopher to propound or say 'theses' or a 'theory'. Why say this except to 
show the proper conception of philosophy?

Donal
Plymouth

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