[lit-ideas] If you can't put it in symbols, it's not worth saying

  • From: Jlsperanza@xxxxxxx
  • To: lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: Sun, 24 Jun 2012 23:37:23 -0400 (EDT)

We are discussing this dictum by Grice in "The Guardian".

In a message dated 6/24/2012 10:27:07 P.M. Eastern Daylight Time,  
rpaul@xxxxxxxx writes:
"[Speranza doesn't] really believe (I hope) that the  English 
language is 'a set of symbols,' on all fours with the 
logical spinach one finds in e.g. Frege, Russell, 
and elementary logic books. If you did, the assignment 
'put the following [some text with ands and ors and 
thens and maybes] into symbolic notation would be (I think
this is the  right term), otiose."
 
Well, yes -- it seems to be the practice today to see if you can AVOID  
schoolboys ("what every school boy knows") get entangled with some logical  
notation (or other). "Informal logic" they call it -- so what everyschool boy  
does NOT necessarily know is the canonical notation of "Principia  
Mathematica" say. They are trying to see if the validity of an argument can  be 
assessed WITHOUT recourse to a calculus.
 
It's like full circle, because when Grice was young (in the 1920s, say) I  
don't think he would mind about his ps and qs (i.e. the notation of 
"Principia  Mathematica") -- and of course, even graduating as a philosopher 
from 
Oxford, he  would have counted as a "classics" scholar today -- he had a first 
in Lit. Hum.  rather -- recall that in Oxford today there are two chairs of 
logic: the  Wykeham, with which Grice was familiar, and a new one, "The 
Chair of  Mathematical Logic', which is run from the Department of Mathematics, 
rather  than Merton College, say. 
 
So, whatever Grice meant, in the apocryphal, by "symbol",  this was  like a 
later discovery for him and perhaps he got too stuck with it. 
 
The trigger was of course his tutee Strawson who had the cheek to write in  
his Foreword to "Introduction to Logical Theory" (Methuen, 1954) that he 
owed it  all to Grice -- "my tutor in logic from whom I never ceased to learn 
about it"  -- AND at same time manage to argue that, say "and" and "." have 
different  _senses_! (Strawson provides a section for EACH 'symbol' and his 
bogus  explanation as to how it diverges from the 'vulgar counterpart' -- 
enough  offense to Grice for Grice to dedicate the "Logic and Conversation" 
lectures,  some ten years later -- first versions in Oxford, 1965, William 
James lectures  at Harvard, 1967 -- to dedicate the whole thing to his 'former 
pupil'.
 
(In "Prolegomena" -- now in WoW -- Studies in the Way of Words -- Grice  
quotes verbatim from Strawson's odd take on 'if' as representing some  
'inferrability' that Grice or I never see in the horseshoe 'p -> q').
 
So, I would think that deep down, even after his rather  late discovery of 
Principia Mathematica, Grice knew, with Russell, that  grammar (if that's 
the word) is a "pretty good guide to logical form". Sometimes  it isn't.
 
The king of France is bald.
The king of France is not bald.
 
For Grice, the former (the affirmative version) ENTAILS 'there is a king of 
 France'; the second (the negative version) doesn't -- only IMPLICATES 
("The king  of France is not bald; in fact, he does not exist"). The logical 
form then of  the negative version would be for Grice something like
 
-(Ex)(Kx & Bx)  
 
The IMPLICATURE results from its reading it as saying: (Ex)Kx &  -(Ex)Bx. 
While Grice would NEVER speak of 'senses' here, he would allow context  to 
play a role: implicatures can be cancelled CONTEXTUALLY. His example: to  
someone the utterer knows is sceptical about an officer beying the "Loyalty  
Examiner" -- "He won't be examining you" (implicated: since he doesn't  exist).
 
R. Paul goes on: "[Speranza says] that 'All boys [love some girl]' in  
English (e.g.) has an ambiguity of scope that can be 'easily demonstrated  
(disambiguated?) in logical notation. This is simply false. The ordinary  
language ambiguity makes it impossible to know—without prompting—how to express 
 
it in 'logical notational' terms. That is, until the ambiguity is removed in  
ordinary language, i.e., whether 'Every boy loves some girl' means 'Every 
boy  loves some girl, namely, Alice' or 'Every boy loves some girl or other' 
must be  decided before anything can be put into the 'notation' of e.g. 
Russell and  Whitehead. The two disambiguated sentences need to be 
logically-notationally  different, and which one is to be preferred is not 
decided by 
logical  notation."
 
There may be more prompting of a more Griceian type, say?
 
"Every boy loves some girl -- call her Mary".
 
i.e. we tend to think (perhaps too stoically) that "Mary" is the name of a  
singular girl. But I guess it's not impossible to call "Mary" this "girl" 
"or  other" (as R. Paul puts it) that every boy loves. The quintessential 
Mary, as it  were. I will see if I can retrieve Grice's words on what he calls 
the  "altogether girl" versus the "one-at-a-time girl" -- In "Vacuous 
Names", Grice  provides the test, "to add "whoever he may be" to mark a 
NON-IDENTIFICATORY use  of an expression. Similarly:
 
Every boy loves some girl -- whoever she may be -- call her "Mary". In that 
 essay, he proposes to use CAPITALS for identificatory usages:

Every boy loves SOME GIRL.
vs.
Every boy loves some girl -- or other -- call her Mary -- whoever she  is.
 
----
 
R. Paul:

"I'm surprised [Speranza] now want to take back, on Grice's  behalf, what 
he's reported as saying to Strawson. Surprised and puzzled because  I thought 
it was part of a fictional Grice's counter to  something
Wittgenstein is falsely said to have believed."
 
Well, I should re-read the obituary (I love doing that -- re-reading  
obituaries) and see why the obituarist thought it relevant to quote an  
apocryphal bit by Grice. 
 
I'm not sure what the fictional Grice may have meant; in any case, the  
quotation is there, obviously, to allow the reader to think, "WOW -- this  
STRAWSON surely was an intelligent chap; to be able to respond to a brain like  
Grice with a witticism like "If you can put it in symbols it's not worth 
saying"  like THAT."
 
------ Strawson (apocryphal, alas, too) seems to miss one important point  
in that symbols need to be INTERPRETED. I can write:
 
"p & q"
 
and claim that that is the logical form of what, say, Tom said when he  
said,
 
"She got married and she had a child" (although not necessarily in that  
order).
But surely I have not said anything about marrying or having a child: just  
'p' and 'q'. If what Strawson is meaning is a reference to particular 
predicates  like:
 
t<t0/MARRY (she, x) &  MOTHER (she, y)
 
that's YET another set of symbols. Note that von Wright uses "&&"  to mean 
"and then". So that, if what Tom said was:

"Well, I heard she had a child -- and got married".
 
von Wright may doubt whether to symbolise that as:
 
p && q
q && p
 
whereas for Grice, since the symbol "&&" does not make sense (in  Witters's 
sense of sense) the only option is 
 
p & q
 
and leave it as an implicature that the order of events as REPORTED reflect 
 the order of events as they happen (Grice's conversational maxim, "be  
orderly").
 
----
 
Note that indeed, there IS a way to put the implicature again in  symbols:
 
If we symbolise
 
p>q
 
as "p predated q"
 
then we can say that the 'logical form' of
 
"Well, I heard she married and got a child -- and I would even go as far as 
 to suggest she did that in THAT Catholic order":
 
is:
 
p & q & p>q
 
Grice prefers:
 
p & q (+> p>q) for the neutral:

"She got married and got a child".
 
(The example, incidentally, comes from Strawson -- Grice prefers to use one 
 by Urmson, "Philosophical Analysis: 
 
"Tim went to bed and took off his trousers"
 
--- (in that order? Who cares? Why would Whitehead care?)
 
Finally, it may well be the case that to render something which as been  
said into "symbols" does not quite _render_ it, because there are, alas,  
differfent LEVELS of abstraction -- limiting ourselves to COHERENT logical  
calculi. That is, if one is asked to use PROPOSITIONAL (rather than predicate)  
logic to render something like:
 
"Every nice girls love a sailor BUT it is not raining"
 
one could well present:
 
"p & q"
 
as the corresponding 'symbols'.
 
 I HAVE put the utterance _in symbols_ -- in the symbols of predicate  
logic.
 
Or consider the choice of what symbol for this or that truth-functor. Note  
that if one uses the fishook -->>> to represent "if", that would  irritate 
Grice who would rather use the 'horseshoe' (->) ANYDAY. So it's not  so much 
the ability to put in symbols something you hear here or there. But  rather 
WHAT symbols you use, which have to be the right ones.
 
For, and this comes out as a nice corollary to Grice's apocrypha:
 
It may well be that, granted Grice did say that, he would rather you  NOT 
put something into some WRONG SET of symbols, if that was going to  give you 
the wrong feeling that some nonsense or other which was not even  showable 
was now turned into something that becomes "worth saying". 
 
Or something like that.

Cheers,
 
Speranza

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