Speranza is, at best, very confused.
Grice, even in the quoted text, did notice what Wittgenstein missed in the
tractarian philosophy, namely that a proposition if expressed is expressed in
an action (technically termed utterance) hence there is the conceptual space to
drive a wedge between the two.
Nothing follows on implication.
-----Original Message-----
From: lit-ideas-bounce@xxxxxxxxxxxxx [mailto:lit-ideas-bounce@xxxxxxxxxxxxx] On
Behalf Of dmarc-noreply@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
Sent: 01 December 2015 13:08
To: lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
Subject: [lit-ideas] Re: Enough Is Enough: The Implicature
In a message dated 12/1/2015 2:38:42 A.M. Eastern Standard Time,
donalmcevoyuk@xxxxxxxxxxx<mailto:donalmcevoyuk@xxxxxxxxxxx> writes: "Where does
JLS get this from? Where, e.g., does W discuss the meaning of [a tautology] in
terms of 'philosophical logic'?
Might I venture the suggestion - nowhere. (Btw, the position of the later W
would be that the meaning of "Enough is enough" would centrally depend on how
it is used, and it may have various uses - from tautological to admonitory)."
I like that 'admonitory', since it was the implicature I was having in mind.
Vide perhaps ps. But I think Witters's view is all over the Tractatus, and in
most exegeses of the work: my favourite, Black's Companion.
"Where is the evidence that W never thought of 'implication'? What shows he
overlooked it?"
The source is Grice, "Prejudice and predilections, which become the life and
opinions of Paul Grice," by Paul Grice. Paul Grice writes:
"A further impetus towards a demand for the provision of a visible theory
underlying ordinary discourse came from my work on the idea of Conversational
Implicature, which emphasised the radical importance of distinguishing (to
speak loosely) what OUR WORDS say or imply from what WE in uttering them
IMPLY; a distinction seemingly denied by Wittgenstein, and all too frequently
ignored by Austin".
J. Martinnov:
_http://www.nytimes.com/2015/11/29/us/colorado-springs-planned-parenthood-obama-responds-to-gun-violence.html?_r=0.
"Obama_
(http://www.nytimes.com/2015/11/29/us/colorado-springs-planned-parenthood-obama-responds-
to-gun-violence.html?_r=0. "Obama) Says ‘Enough Is Enough’" ... "Obama, at the
White House briefing room earlier this month, said, "Enough is enough"". ...
"Obama said in a statement. ... "Enough is enough.""
So I agree with McEvoy that the utterance has an admonitory implicature (or
'use' as McEvoy might prefer).
Grice gives two examples of tautology. So we have.
i. Enough is enough.
and Grice's two examples:
ii. War is war.
iii. Women are women.
Usually linguists, who should know better, quote "Boys will be boys", but this
is different from "Boys are boys" (which is SELDOM uttered -- because found
too otiose?)
But back to Witters, if he denied a distinction, he introduced a few others!
This from the savvy Wikipedia:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tautology_(logic)
"In 1921, in his Tractatus Logico-Philosophicus, [Witters] proposed that
statements that can be deduced by logical deduction are TAUTOLOGICAL (empty of
meaning) as well as being analytic truths."
and
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tractatus_Logico-Philosophicus
"[Witters] is to be credited with the invention or at least the
popularization of truth tables (4.31) and truth conditions (4.431) which now
constitute the standard semantic analysis of first-order sentential logic. The
philosophical significance of such a method for Wittgenstein was that it
alleviated a confusion, namely the idea that logical inferences are justified by
rules. If an argument form is valid, the conjunction of the premises will be
logically equivalent to the conclusion and this can be clearly seen in a
truth table; it is displayed. The concept of TAUTOLOGY is thus central to
Wittgenstein's Tractarian account of logical consequence, which is strictly
deductive."
Cheers,
Speranza
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