Perhaps more on this later, but Jung, in his amazing piece "On Job", makes a convincing argument for the Sophia of the Tanakh and the Logos of the Gospels being one continuous thread of a certain typology. Julie Krueger On Sat, Jul 4, 2009 at 9:21 PM, <Jlsperanza@xxxxxxx> wrote: > Yes, I echo Ursula Stange that it translates 'logos'. > I think it's then the _Greek_ concept, and something for us Christians, but > not necessarily those who only abide by the _Old_ Testament. > I understand the idea of 'logos' here is the Christians paying a little > homage to the Greek tradition in philosophy. > R. Paul should edify us about it. > > When I studied philosophy, or even Latin (my professor, Dissandro, has a > book written on "From mythos to logos") the idea was that _logos_ signified > the beginning of _philosophy_. > > The 'mythos' is _also_ 'word' (so be careful when you say 'wordless' as in > Mendelsohn's 'wordless song') and so is _epos_. > > Thus, while Plato uses 'mythos' in his philosophical dia-LOGUES, he is > more into 'logos' than 'mythos'. > > The Romans spoiled it for us in having to use 'verbum', which is _NOT_ > cognate with 'logos'. "Loquor" _is_ (cognate with 'logos'). > > The Greek root, 'logos' also appears with the stem, 'leg-', as in legomenon > (what is said). > > The Romans of a philosophical orientation preferred to translate 'logos' > as "ratio" but I'm not sure who started this habit, since a _ratio_ in > Latin > was more like a reckoning or calculation, or a physical mark of a > calculation, even. > > ---- > > So by saying what he does, the apostle is saying, > > "In the beginning there was a Reason". > > When Thales first appealed to _logos_ as opposed to mythos, he was trying > to _explain_ things (in a 'rational' way). For consider 'laurel'. Why is > the > laurel like this? Well, there is this myth (the first one used in opera) > that 'laurel' (Daphne in Greek) was a maiden who was going to be raped by > Apollo, etc. So that is a MYTHICAL explanation, but not a LOGical one. > > Both invoke words, but 'logos' is logos is logos. > > So the Apostle may be saying that there is a RATIO, a rationale behind the > COSMOS (for that must be 'world' -- an English notion, cognate with 'were', > man, as in werewolf. (But I double check and we don't need to assume it's > the beginning _of the world_ -- the Greek just go, "en arche", in the > beginning (whatever that may mean) -- in olden times (archaic -- arche) > may be > more cognate). > > And "Gott" is also the English notion. > > So I would think the Greek uses: > > 'kosmos', 'theos' and 'logos' -- and these three words were pretty > important in Greek philosophy. > > So I guess it was an appeal to the Western (Graeco-Roman) sort of > tradition, rather than to the Hebraic one per se. > > Arnold has written extensively on Hebraism versus Hellenism. I would think > that the 'logos' emphasis here is a Hellenic thing. > > But I don't know the first thing about Hebrews and Semites, so maybe the > idea of something like the 'logos' was common with them, too. > > Double checking: > > en: is indeed the proposition, 'in', and in Greek it follows the dative > case, which 'arche' is. > > 'en' (the third word) is the imperfect of 'to be'. I don't think really the > preterite, 'was'. Erat vs. fuit -- I should check with the Vulgata. > > 'ho logos' because 'logos' is masculine, and 'ho' means 'the' in Greek. > 'kai' is of course Attic for 'and'. > 'pros ton theon'. 'ton theon' here is accusative, so 'pros' must govern the > accusative. I wouldn't translate it as 'with' God. In Classical Greek, > 'with' is 'syn', as in 'tea and sympathy'. > > 'pros' I would keep as 'pro'. And the word was _pro_ the God. (rather than > against him?) > > ---- the third clause, 'kai theos en ho logos'. > > seems rhetoric. "Equitive" sentences, as those using 'was' are notably > meant to be symmetrical and reciprocal (as in today's column by O'Reilly on > 'it > is what it is"). > > But the second clause ('ho logos en pros ton theon') should not necessarily > yield "ho logos en ho theos" (the word was god). So the apostle must find > it not otiose to emphasise that God _was_ the word. > > Note that while in the _second_ clause 'god' has the definite article to > it, which I find low-class ("the God", 'ton theon'), the apostle wittily > omits it in the third clause. > > One problem with 'en' (was) is noted by Mike Harnish, the philosopher of > Arizona. He notes that when people used the past, > > "She ejaculated very soon" ---- (sorry for the vulgarism, but I am > falling asleep writing this > theological stuff). > > the implicature seems to be that she no longer does it. > > "I swam a lot -- indeed I still do" > > The theory of implicature is pretty new, and I hope St. John was not > familiar with it, so I tend to think that 'en' was perhaps historical for > him. > Implicature: God is NO LONGER the word -- that was only in the beginning, > hence 'en' (was). > > But as Michael Chase has pointed out to me, the 'en' features also in > Aristotle's idea of 'essence' (to ti en einai'), where the 'en' is 'was', > and > Ross, the commentator, translates this as a non-historical past, > "philosophical" past, I think he calls it. > > Etc. > --- > > Cheers, > > J. L. Speranza > Buenos Aires, Argentina > > ---- (and thanks for the other post, about the king not being a subject > -- much appreciated). > > --- > In a message dated 7/4/2009 9:23:10 P.M. Eastern Daylight Time, > Ursula@xxxxxxxxxx writes: > I think it has something to do with different translations of the Greek > 'Logos'. > > Mike Geary wrote: > "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word > was God." To me this first sentence of Scripture is the most astonishing > and > most puzzling that I've ever encountered. I can't make any sense of it. > And yet I've lived with it for 65 years without reaching out for some > elucidation. What the hell does it mean? Any suggestions? What does > "Word" > mean in this context? > > Mike Geary > wordless > in Memphis > > > **************A Good Credit Score is 700 or Above. 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