> Worzel, huh? That makes for an interesting connection. Thanks for > identifying yourself. Don't take offense at this but coming over to this > site has made you seem much more the diplomat than when you were on BA. You'll find that's true of everyone who goes posting in a forum with people they don't agree with, including people who venture from here to BA. It's the only way to have useful discussions. > (D'ya think it would do the same for even Maksutov? Hmm. That fellow was > harsh. At any rate, I don't think a guy who tosses hotel bibles in the > trash for fun would ever darken our door.) I think he was teasing, but if he came then yes, he would tone have to tone it down a bit. It is very impolite to go into a forum for believers in X and just rubbish X - what's the point. > I should re-read some of your > posts there now. When I went to BA I wondered if Rob Glover would show up > and then one day he recognized me from here and identified himself as > Yorkshireman. It all makes for some interesting connections. (Where does > "Worzel" come from, BTW?) Long story. > Mike wrote: > >>But the point is this isn't completley closed. The kinectic engergy is >>disapted as heat while the angular momentum remains constant. I was >>showing you that loss of kinetic energy is not necessarily loss of >>angular momentum. Do you agree with that statement? > > Mike, from what I know, I agree with you on the "completely closed" thing. > I don't understand how anything could really be considered "closed" in this > universe, except in some very limited "mostly closed" sense. So as far as > this thought that losing kinetic energy would not affect AM, let me say that > it seems to me you are postulating that this part of your metaphor IS in a > closed situation where, yes, the AM would be conserved. But, Mike, if there > is openness for the kinetic energy to dissipate, isn't it just as true there > would be openness for the AM to dissipate? Is not friction a valid > "outside" force for both, Mike? > > I mean, a number of times someone or the other on BA would tell me that > space is not a perfect vacuum. And Dr. Jones just stated that it is full of > "debris". Well, if that's true (or if aether is considered) then would > there not be a component of friction in your hypothetical space example that > would actually reduce, albeit possibly minutely, the AM between the two > bodies? Now I suppose you could say that the AM of "space", or of the > particles that caused the friction in space at least, would have changed a > corresponding amount, but then that does seem mighty open. If we're talking > about friction on the earth's atmosphere from space, then over billions of > years what effect would that have had? Maybe I shouldn't have mentioned closed systems at all. The argument you and Neville are putting forward is that the energy lost through friction between the atmosphere and the earth *necessitates* a loss in angular momentum. At the moment I'm just trying to demonstrate that loss of energy (kinetic => friction => heat) does not necessitate loss of angular momentum and therefore your argument doesn't hold. Regards, Mike.