[geocentrism] Re: CAM and CoE

  • From: Mike <mboyd@xxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • To: geocentrism@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: Mon, 18 Oct 2004 16:47:57 +0100

> Worzel, huh?  That makes for an interesting connection.  Thanks for
> identifying yourself.  Don't take offense at this but coming over to this
> site has made you seem much more the diplomat than when you were on BA.

You'll find that's true of everyone who goes posting in a forum with 
people they don't agree with, including people who venture from here to 
BA.  It's the only way to have useful discussions.

> (D'ya think it would do the same for even Maksutov?  Hmm.  That fellow was
> harsh.  At any rate, I don't think a guy who tosses hotel bibles in the
> trash for fun would ever darken our door.)

I think he was teasing, but if he came then yes, he would tone have to 
tone it down a bit.  It is very impolite to go into a forum for 
believers in X and just rubbish X - what's the point.

>   I should re-read some of your
> posts there now.  When I went to BA I wondered if Rob Glover would show up
> and then one day he recognized me from here and identified himself as
> Yorkshireman.  It all makes for some interesting connections.  (Where does
> "Worzel" come from, BTW?)

Long story.

> Mike wrote:
> 
>>But the point is this isn't completley closed.  The kinectic engergy is
>>disapted as heat while the angular momentum remains constant.  I was
>>showing you that loss of kinetic energy is not necessarily loss of
>>angular momentum.  Do you agree with that statement?
> 
> Mike, from what I know, I agree with you on the "completely closed" thing.
> I don't understand how anything could really be considered "closed" in this
> universe, except in some very limited "mostly closed" sense.  So as far as
> this thought that losing kinetic energy would not affect AM, let me say that
> it seems to me you are postulating that this part of your metaphor IS in a
> closed situation where, yes, the AM would be conserved.  But, Mike, if there
> is openness for the kinetic energy to dissipate, isn't it just as true there
> would be openness for the AM to dissipate?  Is not friction a valid
> "outside" force for both, Mike?
> 
> I mean, a number of times someone or the other on BA would tell me that
> space is not a perfect vacuum.  And Dr. Jones just stated that it is full of
> "debris".  Well, if that's true (or if aether is considered) then would
> there not be a component of friction in your hypothetical space example that
> would actually reduce, albeit possibly minutely, the AM between the two
> bodies?  Now I suppose you could say that the AM of "space", or of the
> particles that caused the friction in space at least, would have changed a
> corresponding amount, but then that does seem mighty open.  If we're talking
> about friction on the earth's atmosphere from space, then over billions of
> years what effect would that have had?

Maybe I shouldn't have mentioned closed systems at all.

The argument you and Neville are putting forward is that the energy lost 
through friction between the atmosphere and the earth *necessitates* a 
loss in angular momentum.

At the moment I'm just trying to demonstrate that loss of energy 
(kinetic => friction => heat) does not necessitate loss of angular 
momentum and therefore your argument doesn't hold.

Regards,
Mike.

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