[etni] Re: Fw: grammar question
- From: David Graniewitz <graniewitz@xxxxxxxxxxxx>
- To: ask@xxxxxxxx, ETNI <etni@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Fri, 9 Oct 2009 08:50:21 +0200 (IST)
The correct answer is "wrote".
The way I explain it to my classes is that the Past Simple
denotes a one-time action done in the past that cannot be
continued. Dan Brown wrote the Da-Vinci Code -- he is alive,
there is no specified time, however, he cannot write the Da
Vinci Code again. He has the ability and the opportunity to
write other books but not this specific one.
One of the examples I give is "Columbus discovered America in
1492." We analyse this sentence in class and find that there
are 3 reasons why this sentence has to be in the Past Simple;
a) Columbus is dead and can't do anything anymore.
b) A specific time is given -- 1492.
c) The discovery of America is a one-time action. Once it is
discovered it can't be discovered again.
The only way a one time action could be in the Present Perfect
is if this tense is used to denote recent past. Imagine the
court of King Ferdinand in 1492. A courtier runs in and says
excitedly. "Listen everybody, Columbus has just discovered
America!"
(Pardon the anachronisms here.)
Hag Sameach
David Graniewitz
Jerusalem
Hello Helpful People..
While other people are helping all of us with what really
matters, such as
HOTS, CDs, and payment issues, here I come to this list again
with another
"trivial" question about the "present perfect". I wouldn't be
asking if I
understood the answer given in the answer key of the grammar
book I'm taking
my question from. Thank you in advance for giving this time
and thought.
Question: "wrote" or "has written" (and why)
Dan Brown ....................... "The Da Vinci Code". I
haven't bought it
yet.
I say the answer is "has written" because there is no
specification of past
time. Right? Why is this different from "I have seen that
movie?"
Hope to hear from you soon:)
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