SW, 1. On our agreement or disagreement. As I believe I indicated before, I am offerring examples and comments in hopes of getting clarification as to the distinction you wish to make. If you inform me of where my remarks may be taken to agree or disagree then that would surely give me a better handle on what it is you wish to say. 2. On these ideas being in the PI. Wittgenstein discusses various language games with various permutations. And he points out various distinctions. But I see no such overarching distinction as you seem to be proposing. Certainly, I don't see anything like a simple dichotomy as your talk of "bearer-calls" and "bearer-assignments" seems to suggest. 3. On my thinking the bearer's presence is required. I asked you whether it was and you didn't give me a straightforward answer. I also proposed various cases for you to consider in clarifying what you might mean. You said things that suggested it was required (in some form) but none too clearly. You now seem to be suggesting otherwise. 4. On "enthymematic" "Enthymematic" doesn't quite seem appropriate here but I think I have a vague idea of the connection you're trying to draw so I won't make an issue of it for the moment. (I can see how one might wish to draw an analogy between a background presupposed by the meaningful deployment of a word or expression - which seems to be your concern - and the unstated premises or conclusions suggested or assumed in the presentation of an argument - what arguments are described as "enthymematic". But that sort of analogy could easily become misleading if pushed too hard.) 5. On "Morder" and "Batcave" examples Assuming that I understand you correctly (something I hesitate to do), it seems to me that a far better example would be "Air Force One", which is the call sign assigned to whichever airplane is currently carrying the President of the United States. Contrast this with the building at 1600 Pennsylvania Ave., "The White House". 6. Resorting to the "telephone conversation format" you so loathe... "You seem to think that a description is a description is a description." On its face, that would be a tautology. But whether I would agree to the point of such a statement... "You appear to think that being 'the eldest daughter of' is no different than being 'the man who saved the Israelites in the Exodus.'" Of course they are different. In various ways. It is also similar in various respects. But I would think the issue would be whether the similarities or differences are relevant. And relevance here is a matter of a particular purpose, a particular distinction one wishes to make. "This would only be true where the the person became known for that description, such that the doing of the thing would warrant the assignment of the name." The assignment of the name by whom? And to whom? Under what circumstances? Are we picking out a putative "Moses" and asking, "is this the man who saved the Israelites in the Exodus?" How are we picking out such an individual? What other criteria are we applying for individuating this putative "Moses"? (Obviously we're not picking people of the street and asking, "is this the man who...?" In a scenario I proposed, we might ask, "Are these the remains of the man who saved the Israelites in the Exodus?" That question makes sense. And it makes sense to say, "When I ask, 'Are these the remains of Moses?' I am asking whether these are the remains of the man who..." That clarification, that paraphrase, is intelligible. (But it also makes sense, on meeting someone, discovering that her name is "Sally", but then realizing that this isn't the "Sally" you thought, to say, "Oh, when you said you were Sally, I thought that you were the eldest daughter of... but you aren't that 'Sally'." Many are known at various times in their lives and in various circles by such descriptions as "the eldest daughter of...") Having accepted the paraphrase of the question about the remains, how might one answer the question? How might one determine whether to assign the name to these remains? Various sorts of evidence might be considered and I mentioned some. But what I would like to emphasize is that they would either emphasize that there are signs in the manner in which the remains were interred that those who interred them believed some such thing about the main whose remans they were or that they the were the remains of "The Giver of the Law" and that tradition says that such an individual is also, "The man who saved the Israelites in the Exodus." Now, my example of the putative remains aside, to what bearer would we even be assigning the name? "We both agree it would be difficult to play bearer-call with Moses." Do we? At this point, your distinction to me is even less clear to me than I previously thought. But if you say I agree... "But you might be able to if you had enough historical evidence for (a) the existence of the person; and (b) the non-existence of the things that can operate as bearer assignments." I am taking this as something like (a) there is someone satisfying... (Satisfying what? The description? Which one?) and (b) there are no others satisfying... But then you say... "Let's say he is born of person X and Y. Let's say we have identified the parents. Let's say we have remains with the name. Let's say we also have hard evidence that Bob led the Israelites out of Egypt. And let's say we have evidence that Bob was shunned in the telling of stories for political reasons. Bearer-call: Moses didn't do it. Bearer-assignment: Bob is Moses." So, "Moses didn't do it" is, under these assumptions a "bearer-call" because we have some independent criteria for identifying Moses, i.e. because Moses isn't just the putative description, "the man who led the Israelites out of Egypt". Do I have that right? Now, which of these descriptions is relevant: that he was the child of so and so? Or that he is the person who left such and such remains? Must both obtain? Either? How are the parents individuated? What are our criteria in using their names? Again, you push the problem back a step and it's a pointless shuffle. ("Sally is the eldest daughter of..." is useful to someone who knows, or knows of, her parents, or to distinguish her from a "Sally" with different parents, but just having the name "Sally" and the names of her two parents tells me next to nothing.) And what sort of "hard evidence" might we have that Bob did it and was shunned? How is Bob identified apart from these? Have we his remains as well? His parents? Is this relevant? So far your example makes no sense to me, though I might imagine various ways of fleshing it out into something intelligible. Now, I take it that "Bob is Moses" is a "bearer-assignment" because we are in that case treating it as a rule of grammar that "Moses" is whoever led the Israelites out of Egypt. Do I have that right? And is this like saying "Bacon is Shakespeare" where we discover that Bacon composed the plays and sonnets and treat it as a rule of grammar that whoever composed those works should be called "Shakespeare", regardless of whether we know other things about the life of an actor who was (ex hypothesi) wrongly credited with those works? So then, "Shakespeare didn't write the plays" would be a "bearer-call", while "Bacon is Shakespeare" would be a "bearer-assignment"? Am I getting your distinction? And is the point to call those cases where we treat a description as definitive, come what may, i.e. as a rule of grammar for the use of the name, we are engaged in "bearer-assignment"? And a "bearer-call"? Apart from not treating any one description as definitive, what are the criteria for speaking of a usage as a "bearer-call"? I also want some clarification on this (and it relates to my insistence that "tautology" not be assigned to individual words in isolation but to, e.g. propositions or definitions): do these terms ("bearer-call" and "bearer-assignment") apply to names? To sentences, statement, or propositions? To rules? To occasions of usage? What? For example, you write... "Planets. All examples are bearer-calls. (Per Wittgenstein, Shipment amendable after delivery)" Now, presumably, the planets themselves are not "bearer-calls". Their names? The rules governing their names? On all occasions? Before and after relevant discoveries? All examples? Including "Vulcan"? The fictional homeworld of Mr. Spock as well as the discarded astronomical hypothesis? I am now as confused as ever, because given the understanding I was coming to just above, "Vulcan" (of Le Verrier's hypothesis) would have seemed to me to be a perfect candidate for "bearer assignment". According to the hypothesis, "Vulcan" would have been whatever planet occupied such a position as to explain Mercury's perihelion precession within Newtonian mechanics. Anything that fit that description would have been counted as "Vulcan". Likewise, prior to its observation, "Neptune" would have been whatever planet satisfied what was required to explain the motion of Uranus. Would that not have been a case of "bearer-assignment" according to your usage? (Presumably, uses of "Neptune" subsequent to the observation would be "bearer-calls". Or would they?) "Police and name tags. Let's assume you are at a party. Let's assume the name tag of one person says 'Jack the Ripper' (JR)." (Wow! Great example. Very plausible.) "And another person is named 'Bob.' Let's assume that Bob is the one who actually killed the people, not JR. Who are the police looking for? This is a trick question." (And an oh so clever one.) "If they are looking for the person who killed, they are always looking for the X of N, even though that could be used for a bearer assignment. This is just like the Sauron example BEFORE HE MOVES. So, they are looking for the X who killed so and so. They'd therefore be looking for Bob. But if people come to say 'Bob is Jack the Ripper,' they are speaking in the sense of a bearer-assignment." I think I understand why you're calling this "bearer-assignment". It is being treated as a rule that whoever committed the murders shall be called "Jack the Ripper". And why not? Of course a name like "Jack the Ripper" would be used that way, which is why your example of someone with a "Jack the Ripper" name tag is so completely and utterly stupid. A distinction you fail to note is that, while a larger investigation may be rightly described as "a search for the killer", actual police officers putting in the leg work are looking for suspects and persons of interest, and these are sought out and recognized as fitting some description or by a name (or alias), on the assumption that the individuals sought either committed the crime or can provide further information about the crime. "Look for the killer" is meaningless without some such context for the search. (OJ Simpson apparently was proceeding in such a fashion and thought the "real killer" might be found on various golf courses or in strip clubs. And apparently, he thought he'd recognize them on sight. But I think we can count him as exceptional.) "Meaning is use! (God love our hero)" (Even if his admirers misquote him and butcher his circumspect remarks to turn them into slogans.) JPDeMouy ========================================= Need Something? 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