For the moment just a brief comment on Robert's interesting post on this important topic of "realism". --- On Wed, 28/7/10, Robert Paul <rpaul@xxxxxxxx> wrote: >Kant’s misgivings have the form A: ‘One can never compare p with R, for there >is no way of perceiving R.’ (Of course one can’t perceive R, and if this >assumed at the outset, Kant’s search for a point outside both p and R >would >be futile (as he knows) by definition. Assuming p = perception, R = Reality or the world-as-it-is:- Reiterating first a point made in my previous post:- if p exists then p is, in a sense, an aspect of R. But here what interests us more is how p can compare, or be compared, to a non-p R i.e. a non-p Reality or world-as-it-is-outside-of-how-it-appears-to-a-perceiving-subject - a Reality that exists beyond, or outside of, our perception of it. Given the question of comparing p to non-p R, we can see Kant's POV as expressed above: "one can't perceive R", where R is non-p R, because what we perceive is never R but merely our perception of R - when I see a table, the content of what I see is not an actual table but my perception of a table. [Try setting down supper on the content of what I see and you'll see Kant's point]. But surely even if we accept this, it leaves open the question of whether that content accurately corresponds to some non-p R that lies beyond it? If so, we may accept "one can’t perceive R" without having to accept the view that 'One can never compare p with R, for there is no way of perceiving R.’ That is, it is logically possible to accept both 1. Subject X's p with content y [say y = a table] is always at best pRy [i.e. a perception with content y that is part of R] and never can be the same, _ontologically_, as non-pRY [the table-as-it-is-in-itself outside of how it is perceived]. This is so even if we were to assume that the content of pRy exactly corresponds to or is the same as, _epistemically_, the content non-pRY. 2. We can ask and seek to compare, perhaps through critical discussion, the extent to which the content of pRy corresponds to or is the same as content non-pRY. Robert continues:- >So, there must be a Reality ‘outside’ or ‘beyond’ our perceptions that can be >‘experienced’ other than by perception, and here one might ask: How is this known? Yet, this can’t be answered unless the experiencing of R and the perceiving of trees and clouds can occur together: we know this can’t happen, for it could there would be no question of how perceptions >match or don’t match Reality. Not sure I understand this, particularly the last sentence. But my comment is this:- from pRy we need not conclude there is a non-pRY beyond "our perceptions" [we can guess there is or guess there isn't, but that is a v different story]; second, even if we guess there is a non-pRY we need not conclude that there must be a way of experiencing non-pRY that goes beyond "our perceptions". Donal Off for a stiff coffee ------------------------------------------------------------------ To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html