[Wittrs] Re: What is "Originalism" [Larry Solum's View]

  • From: Sean Wilson <whoooo26505@xxxxxxxxx>
  • To: conlawprof@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx, wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: Sun, 2 May 2010 18:07:48 -0700 (PDT)

Hi Larry.

Once again, I appreciate your input. Regarding your last mail, just a few more 
remarks.

1. I'm not aware of a theory in language that says there is such a thing as 
a "public meaning" (then or now). If you would use this expression today -- 
e.g., "the public meaning of happiness" -- it would sound rather problematic. 
What this idea appears to advocate is the view that Bertrand Russell once 
espoused: that the meaning of a word is what a community would reasonably think 
it to be. All you've done is roped off the community over time. In so doing, 
you are setting forth two a priori (or statist) criteria for what a word means: 
(a) majority preference (or something like that); and (b) of these certain 
people, X, at this discreet point in time, Y.   

I don't know of any linguist or philosopher that could support this criteria of 
meaning. That's why I am highly skeptical that your account of originalism has 
anything at all to do with language. 

Consider for a moment what Wittgenstein does to a view like this. He showed us 
that any "statist" account of language was problematic. The reason was 
simple: meaning was out of our hands. If something is INTELLIGIBLE in language, 
it has meaning. What this says is that language is a free market.  If I can use 
any expression that successfully "makes a trade" in the marketplace, the 
expression has the "cash value" in that market that it does. You can never take 
away or void successful trades in the language marketplace on the grounds 
that pre-existing criteria have been violated, or that the trade in the 
expression is less popular. Another way of saying this is that language is a 
behavior. (It's like dance).

2. If the above is correct, there is no such thing as a "public meaning" which 
we would treat as an orthodox understanding for language. Instead, there are 
things like senses, connotation, idiom, family resemblance, archetypes, 
prototypes, extensions, convenient boundaries and polysemy. For example, one 
would never speak today of the public meaning of "lunch" or of "chair." 
Instead, we might speak of the cultural behaviors that are popular to exemplify 
these ideas (versus the past). 

And what is critical is that, although the popular behaviors that exemplify 
"lunch" and "chair" today are DIFFERENT from 1787, there is no indication that 
even the sense of the idea is any different. And if it works like this for 
"lunch" and "chair," it seems to work the same way for "equal protection," 
"privileges and immunities," "liberty," and so forth. Each epoch can have 
a different cultural regimentation for the same ballpark idea. You are not 
violating the language meaning by choosing an example different from the first 
generation, so long as they could understand your use of the idea in question.  

And you will note that the cure for all of these things -- both in language and 
law -- is to use rigid nomenclature. The more rigid the semantics, the less 
likely the trade in the expression will have additional "sense" or examples.

And so that may be what it all boils down to. Just as intentions do not 
secretly pass into law when the "ayes have it," so too are the popular protocol 
of the expressions not themselves codified. For they are only examples (for 
which others are possible). We understand this without controversy when dealing 
with statutes, so it is not clear to me why constitutions are different -- 
especially if all this is predicated upon a proper account of language. 

Regards and thanks.

Dr. Sean Wilson, Esq.
Assistant Professor
Wright State University
Personal Website: http://seanwilson.org
SSRN papers: http://ssrn.com/author=596860
Discussion Group: http://seanwilson.org/wittgenstein.discussion.html 



________________________________
From: Lawrence Solum <lsolum@xxxxxxxxx>
To: Sean Wilson <whoooo26505@xxxxxxxxx>
Cc: conlawprof@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx; wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
Sent: Sun, May 2, 2010 5:07:44 PM
Subject: Re: What is "Originalism" [Larry Solum's View]

Once again, thank you to Sean Wilson for his very thoughtful comments, which 
again deserve a far more thorough reply than I can provide on this occasion. 

Ultimately, nothing hangs on the name we give a theory.  Contemporary 
originalism (the so-called "New Originalism" or "Original Public Meaning 
Originalism") focuses on the original public meaning of each provision of the 
constitutional text.  My claim (which Sean disputes) is that the "original 
public meaning" is the conventional semantic meaning as fixed by linguistic 
facts as they stood at the time each provision was framed and ratified.  So far 
as I can tell, a generalized version of this claim (which accounts of the 
differences between "original intentions of the framers," "original 
understandings of the ratifiers," and "original public meaning" is one of two 
focal points of the theorists who self identify as "originalist."  The second 
characteristic claim is that constitutional practice should be defeasibly 
constrained by that original meaning of the text.

For this reason, I believe that the coined word "originalism" is now generally 
understood to refer to views that affirm these two theses (fixation and 
constraint).  And therefore, I believe that my usage of the term "originalism" 
is a fair one.

So when Sean writes,

It seems to me that for one to truly become "originalist," one must leave 
linguistics altogether. That's the whole point, isn't it? That we cannot take 
the meaning of the words in the Constitution as "their meaning," we must delve 
into history and time in order to find the behavior and lives of dead people so 
that we can pretend that ordinary words have fixed objects. We do this not 
under warrant of any theory of language, but because this communion with Noah 
is said to be what "law is."
>
>I must respectfully disagree.  The whole idea of the New Originalism as I 
>understand it, is to reject the equation of original meaning with original 
>expected applications, and to move instead to the linguistic meaning or 
>semantic content of the text.  Originalism is not about "fixed objects" or 
>"fixed applications," it is about the constraining force of fixed semantic 
>content. 



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