[C] [Wittrs] Digest Number 74

  • From: WittrsAMR@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • To: WittrsAMR@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: 15 Dec 2009 11:00:13 -0000

Title: WittrsAMR

Messages In This Digest (14 Messages)

Messages

1a.

The Referent of 'I'

Posted by: "Joseph Polanik" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Dec 14, 2009 3:05 am (PST)



Cayuse wrote:

>SWM wrote:

>>"Cayuse" wrote:

>>>David Kastle indirectly led me to a paper by Anscombe that echoed
>>>my argument. She writes:

>>>"The (deeply rooted) grammatical illusion of a subject is what
>>>generates all the errors which we have been considering."
>>>http://mind.ucsd.edu/syllabi/01-02/270/pwd01F270/anscombe.html

>>What has that to do with your mantra of "it has no application" when
>>speaking of the "I"?

>As I maintained, and as Anscombe also points out, the word "I"
>pertains to the physical organism, and "the (deeply rooted)
illusion"
>of a "subject of experience" has no application, kimosabe!

Anscombe specifically reject the claim that the referent of 'I' is the
human body. she holds that the referent of 'I' is the human person that
uses it. she writes:

"Note that when I use the word "person" here, I use it in the sense in
which it occurs in "offences against the person". At this point people
will betray how deeply they are infected by dualism, they will say: "You
are using 'person' in the sense of 'body' " -- and what they mean by
"body" is something that is still there when someone is dead. But that
is to misunderstand "offences against the person". None such can be
committed against a corpse. 'The person' is a living human body."

in any case, whether you hold that the referent of 'I' is the body or
the person, you've adopted a claim that LW rejects "The philosophical
self is not the human being, not the human body ..."

it is obvious that the word 'I' is ambiguous as to the nature of its
user. using the the type specific first-person pronouns I've devised for
greater clarity, ...

I-0 = the human person or individual in its entirety

I-1 = the human body or the specific part thereof associated with the
sense of self

I-2 = the experiencing I or the phenomenological experiencer

I-3 = an immaterial but metaphenomenally real component of the human
being (eg an immaterial cartesian-style mind or soul)

clearly, Anscombe claims that I = I-0 [the referent of 'I' has to be the
person]; you claim that I = I-1 [the referent of 'I' has to be the
body]; and, I claim 'I' can be used in any of these ways.

important for our purposes is that LW claims that the philosophical
subject is not the I-0, the I-1 or the I-3. by the process of
elimination, that leaves the I-2 as the philosophical subject.

Joe

--

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1b.

Re: The Referent of 'I'

Posted by: "Cayuse" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Dec 14, 2009 8:36 am (PST)



Joseph Polanik wrote:
> Cayuse wrote:
>>>> http://mind.ucsd.edu/syllabi/01-02/270/pwd01F270/anscombe.html
<snip>
>> As I maintained, and as Anscombe also points out, the word "I"
>> pertains to the physical organism, and "the (deeply rooted)
>> illusion" of a "subject of experience" has no application, kimosabe!
>
> Anscombe specifically reject the claim that the referent of 'I' is the
> human body. she holds that the referent of 'I' is the human person
> that uses it. she writes:
>
> "Note that when I use the word "person" here, I use it in the sense in
> which it occurs in "offences against the person". At this point people
> will betray how deeply they are infected by dualism, they will say:
> "You are using 'person' in the sense of 'body' " -- and what they
> mean by "body" is something that is still there when someone is dead.
> But that is to misunderstand "offences against the person". None such
> can be committed against a corpse. 'The person' is a living human
> body."

When was the last time you heard a corpse make a reference to itself?

> in any case, whether you hold that the referent of 'I' is the body or
> the person, you've adopted a claim that LW rejects "The philosophical
> self is not the human being, not the human body ..."

"... but rather the metaphysical subject, the limit of the world --
not a part of it." And it is precisely this use of the word "self" that
has no application.
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1c.

The Referent of 'I'

Posted by: "Joseph Polanik" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Dec 14, 2009 4:18 pm (PST)



Cayuse wrote:

>Joseph Polanik wrote:

>>Cayuse wrote:

>>>As I maintained, and as Anscombe also points out, the word "I"
>>>pertains to the physical organism, and "the (deeply rooted)
>>>illusion" of a "subject of experience" has no application, kimosabe!

>>Anscombe specifically reject the claim that the referent of 'I' is the
>>human body. she holds that the referent of 'I' is the human person
>>that uses it.

>When was the last time you heard a corpse make a reference to itself?

focus! Cayuse.

Anscombe is distinguishing the human person from the human body, just as
LW distinguished the human being from the human body.

>>in any case, whether you hold that the referent of 'I' is the body or
>>the person, you've adopted a claim that LW rejects "The philosophical
>>self is not the human being, not the human body ..."

>"... but rather the metaphysical subject, the limit of the world --
>not a part of it."

so far, so good. the philosophical self is the metaphysical subject.

>And it is precisely this use of the word "self" that has no
>application.

look again.

LW is applying the word 'self' right before your very eyes.

LW defines that phrase by stating first what the self is not and then by
stating that it is 'the metaphysical subject' as he calls it.

a useful question would be "how does LW use 'metaphysical' in the phrase
'the metaphysical subject'?".

by stating that the metaphysical subject is not the human being, the
human body or the human soul, LW saying quite clearly that 'the
metaphysical subject' refers to the experiencer of its experiences or to
the experiencing I.

Joe

--

Nothing Unreal is Self-Aware

@^@~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~@^@
http://what-am-i.net
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2.1.

Re: What is there about the pronoun "I" that "has no application"?

Posted by: "Cayuse" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Dec 14, 2009 8:25 am (PST)



SWM wrote:
> "Cayuse" wrote:
>> As I maintained, and as Anscombe also points out, the word "I"
>> pertains to the physical organism, and "the (deeply rooted) illusion"
>> of a "subject of experience" has no application, kimosabe!
<snip>
> If you now wish to be disassociated from it, however, or to say that
> that's not what you meant, that's fine.

Yet more misrepresentational claptrap -- you are the true maestro SWM.
I started off some time ago by giving you the benefit of the doubt about
what were possibly simple misunderstandings, but was eventually forced
to the conclusion that my assessment was too charitable. You may carry
on constructing your straw-men without further interruption from me --
I really can't be bothered with your tedious ramblings any more.
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2.2.

Re: What is there about the pronoun "I" that "has no application"?

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Dec 14, 2009 9:08 am (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "Cayuse" <z.z7@...> wrote:
>

> SWM wrote:
> > "Cayuse" wrote:
> >> As I maintained, and as Anscombe also points out, the word "I"
> >> pertains to the physical organism, and "the (deeply rooted) illusion"
> >> of a "subject of experience" has no application, kimosabe!
> <snip>

> > If you now wish to be disassociated from it, however, or to say that
> > that's not what you meant, that's fine.

> Yet more misrepresentational claptrap -- you are the true maestro SWM.
> I started off some time ago by giving you the benefit of the doubt about
> what were possibly simple misunderstandings,

Well thank you for that "benefit of the doubt". I wonder if it ever occurred to you though that others might be doing the same with regard to your statements?

> but was eventually forced
> to the conclusion that my assessment was too charitable.

I don't know what you're upset about. When we parted in our discussion here, I thought we had done so on good terms. Perhaps you are just picking up some of the other somewhat bad vibrations we have recently seen on this list?

It is often the case that we humans have a herd mentality and seize on what others say as a reinforcement of our own feelings and allow ourselves to be drawn along. Then we get the piling on and packing mentality that so often occurs in these kinds of exchanges. I have seen it before.

The fact that I have disagreed with your claims about consciousness, selves and the use of the term "I" should not become a source of personal dissatisfaction for you. We all have disagreements and the fact that anyone happens to disagree with us is not proof we are wrong (though, if we're open-minded enough, we will certainly consider THAT possibility).

I told you before that I am sympathetic to your viewpoint though I think it is misguided with regard to the issues I was addressing about consciousness (how brains produce it and what it ultimately consists of) and, later, that I thought your argument with Joe left you on the wrong side of that debate because there is a basic incoherence to a position like yours that acknowledges that we speak English, and understand one another in doing so, and yet declares that certain perfectly ordinary English usages "have no application"!

There is certainly a metaphysical and a spiritual sense in which you could make this point, i.e., when we want to say that, at bottom, there really is no such entity as an "I", that it represents a phenomenological perspective and not a thing, not an entity, etc.

But:

1) In my discussion I am speaking precisely about how this perspective comes to be and what constitutes it (so it is clearly something we can apply the term "I" to); and

2) In Joe's argument with you, it makes no sense to deny what he has pointed out, namely that we use "I" for certain perfectly understandable referents even if the referent may vary in different contexts.

> You may carry
> on constructing your straw-men without further interruption from me --
> I really can't be bothered with your tedious ramblings any more.
> ==========================================
>

Well that is always your choice. I didn't ask you to comment (though you are always welcome to) nor did I attack you for what you had said. Rather, you attacked me.

I did say that what you had said in the past was wrong and perhaps you took that personally but, if so, you should not have because it wasn't meant personally.

If we are to have any serious discourse at all, the possibility MUST exist to tell others when we think they have things wrong, even if it hurts their feelings. The right response to such a claim is to make the case for why one is, in fact, not wrong. But that case is NOT made by insulting or attacking the person claiming one is wrong.

In all our discussions I have never attacked you personally, Cayuse, though I have certainly said I think you are mistaken in many of the things you have said. But that's what these kinds of discussions are about. Anyway, I did not intend to ruffle your feathers, offend you or otherwise make you feel hurt. You did claim that "I" has "no application" and any review of what you have written here in the past will support my point. The flaw in that kind of thinking is most easily seen in your subsequent debate with Joe Polanik (with whom I am also not fully in agreement, of course -- though hopefully he does not take it personally).

SWM

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3.1.

Re: The elusivensss of reduction

Posted by: "BruceD" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Dec 14, 2009 1:08 pm (PST)




--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, J DeMouy <wittrsamr@...> wrote:

> And yet, "reduction" is far more elusive than has been (until
recently) simply taken for granted!

Why do you think? Would appreciate your reflections with regard to
brain/mind matter.

bruce

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3.2.

Re: The elusivensss of reduction

Posted by: "J DeMouy" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Dec 14, 2009 2:09 pm (PST)



Bruce,

Regarding the Philosophy of Chemistry and the relationship between physics and chemistry, I wrote:

> > And yet, "reduction" is far more elusive than has been
> (until
> recently) simply taken for granted!

and you asked:

> Why do you think?

I am firmly of the view that the task of philosophy is not explanation but description. The article to which my original post linked describes the various puzzles better than I could. And it provides useful pointers to further reading on the subject, should you be interested.

I certainly see no point in speculation. At least not as a philosopher. (And I don't pretend to be a scientist.)

I'll say this much: if we take scientific theories as simply providing more or less effective means of coping with the world in various specific domains, there would be no reason to suppose that one theory should be completely reduced to another. But if we make our goal the creation ("discovery") of the one true and complete description of reality, then we require such a reduction. Which is not to say we have any more reason to actually expect it.

Am I advocating anti-realism? Pragmatism? No. I am pointing out connections between different demands we make of science.

Would appreciate your reflections with
> regard to
> brain/mind matter.

Thanks for your interest but with all due respect, there's no way I'd choose to get entangled in the present discussion.

JPDeMouy

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4.1.

Re: Where is the "I"?

Posted by: "BruceD" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Dec 14, 2009 1:43 pm (PST)




--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@...> wrote:

> But the issue is where do we get the "we"

We start with the "I." Alternative?

> What has this to do with the notion that brains cause consciousness?

If you elect to place the brain in a causal relation to the person's
consciousness, the it seems you have two options.

1. Reconciling with common sense. The brain causes me to sense myself,
to feel pain, sorrow, to see things, but what I choose to do is actually
a choice, I'm an agent, somewhat constrained, but not to be described in
accordance with causal laws.

2. Reductionism. The brain causes not only what I experience but what I
seem to feel and do and hence the "I" is just a place-maker, a way of
referring to this entity called Bruce. No different in kind then my
computer who I affectionately call Buddha.

>The point of Dehaene's research is to explore and discover
> how the brain produces the phenomenon of subjective awareness.

Same question,
Should I think of the "brain producing awareness" the way I think of my
heart pumping blood, something I feel and can see? If so, where is the
"I" in relation to the phenomena I observe.

> He says consciousness (he means awareness here) arises when a certain
threshold
> in brain operations is crossed,

Arises where? Same question

> D never equates consciousness with matter but with the operations of
certain kinds of matter.

Yes. But does the brain operate on its own, somehow creating the
illusion that I'm different from the brain chemistry. Or do "I" operate
with my brain. I wish I could ask D this question.

> ...we can say persons become conscious upon awakening... None of this
gets at how
> brains produce consciousness

Right! The task for the reductionist is to show "how" the brain
neuro-chemstry produces. Presently, we can show a correlation which
means "production" can go in either direction, brain making me sad as I
react to its shifting chemistry or me making me happier by causing my
brain to change its chemistry.

Of course, this is unforgiveable Dualism. So, get past it.

bruce

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4.2.

Re: Where is the "I"?

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Dec 14, 2009 4:13 pm (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "BruceD" <blroadies@...> wrote:

>
> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@> wrote:
>
> > But the issue is where do we get the "we"
>
> We start with the "I." Alternative?
>

"I", "we", whatever. It's the same point. The issue is not who is tasting when the part of the brain involved with that is doing that but, rather, how tasting comes about and how it fits with the rest of the entity that sees a self in itself.

> > What has this to do with the notion that brains cause consciousness?
>
> If you elect to place the brain in a causal relation to the person's
> consciousness, the it seems you have two options.
>
> 1. Reconciling with common sense. The brain causes me to sense myself,
> to feel pain, sorrow, to see things, but what I choose to do is actually
> a choice, I'm an agent, somewhat constrained, but not to be described in
> accordance with causal laws.
>

The brain doesn't cause you to do anything, it causes the "you" that does anything (in the wetness-of-water sense of "cause") in the first place.

> 2. Reductionism. The brain causes not only what I experience but what I
> seem to feel and do and hence the "I" is just a place-maker, a way of
> referring to this entity called Bruce. No different in kind then my
> computer who I affectionately call Buddha.
>

This is a way of saying it, I suppose, but not an especially intelligible way. But I'm good with reductionism, definitely not good with any locution that supposes the brain causes me to think or do anything. The heart doesn't cause me to pump the blood of my body. It pumps the blood. In the same way, the brain generates the subjective experience that is the self, that is the mind.

> >The point of Dehaene's research is to explore and discover
> > how the brain produces the phenomenon of subjective awareness.
>
> Same question,
> Should I think of the "brain producing awareness" the way I think of my
> heart pumping blood, something I feel and can see?

While we can become aware of our heart pumping blood under certain circumstances we are not typically aware of it as it is going on, let alone the regular contractions and expansions of the heart muscle that is involved in producing the pumping action.

> If so, where is the
> "I" in relation to the phenomena I observe.
>

Aside from the fact that blood in the circulatory system is a different phenomenon than subjective experience (i.e., subjectness, being a subject, etc.), and so we should not expect to discover or attend to them in quite the same way, the analogy does hold. The "I" is found in the aspect of being a subject that we count as the experiencer, the construct of mental features that count as the mechanism which yields our sense of being a self.

Now the question has arisen nearby as to whether there is really a there there. As Kant pointed out long ago, if you peel back the layers of the onion of consciousness, pretty soon you come to a point where there is nothing to behold. The subject perceiving isn't, itself, an object of perception.

Does this mean there is no "I", no self? Well on one level it does. It tells us that the I or the self are fundamentally different kinds of concepts than anything that can be directly objectified as the referent of a subject. This is an interesting and useful insight. But on another level it does not mean there is no self at all. As Hume showed, what we consider the self, the "I", is just an array of lots of phenomena known to the subject. So the subject, as the experiencer, is not a discreet phenomenon, though it is part of a complex of phenomena that we label the self, the "I", just as other parts are labeled as our percepts and concepts.

As Dennett points out, we don't need to posit a distinct, irreducible self to account for the fact that we see a self in ourselves upon looking inward, upon introspection. So in this sense the self is illusion. Who sees this illusion? The illusion does, of course. It's just that kind of illusion.

>
> > He says consciousness (he means awareness here) arises when a certain
> threshold
> > in brain operations is crossed,
>
> Arises where? Same question
>

Same answer if it's the same question. But it can't really be the same question since above I am describing Dehaene's proposal as to the role of the brain, i.e., that there is no consciousness organ within the brain because the whole brain (or at least a large part of it) IS THAT organ and the consciousness in question occurs as various processes reach a certain threshold such that certain functionalities are initiated in a synchronous way.

But your initial question asked "where is the 'I' in relation to the phenomena I observe?" And I answered that in a phenomenological way because that's what it appears to be asking.

> "Dennet never equates consciousness with matter but with the operations of certain kinds of matter."
>

> Yes. But does the brain operate on its own, somehow creating the
> illusion that I'm different from the brain chemistry.

What "illusion"? We don't have direct experience of the brain chemistry which is a conceptual construct, a way of explaining how certain things work. There is no intrinsic illusion that you have nothing to do with your brain (or its chemistry), though that is certainly one of two intuitions that we derive from being in the world in the way we are. The illusion you allude to is the dualist one, that our being a self is to be a free standing entity in the universe, derived from the intuition that minds are apart from the physical. While this can be very compelling it is not obviously true, especially because we have a second intuition, at least equally strong, that we are creatures of the physical world in which we find ourselves.

You can't blame the fact that the brain causes consciousness for the particular illusions any individual consciousness happens to be laboring under.

> Or do "I" operate
> with my brain. I wish I could ask D this question.
>

I suspect he would wonder what you think you are asking, as I do here! What kind of question asks if the "brain operate[s] on its own"??? What are the alternatives? A soul running in tandem along side it? A two-way communication device linking the brain to soul central?

And how can one answer a question of whether you "operate with [your] brain"? Insofar as this locution makes any sense at all in ordinary language it refers to whether you are applying intelligence in some fashion to what you do or just running on autopilot, that is, behaving mindlessly, thoughtlessly, without any evidence of intelligent considerations.

But of course for you to be running at all the brain must be operating one way or another, whether you are on autopilot or not.

What would would it be like to not operate with your brain at all? Wouldn't you just have to be like some notion of a zombie or automaton, or a corpse inert on its slab or in the ground?

> > ...we can say persons become conscious upon awakening... None of this
> gets at how
> > brains produce consciousness
>
> Right! The task for the reductionist is to show "how" the brain
> neuro-chemstry produces.

Well that's part of Dehaene's project isn't it?

> Presently, we can show a correlation which
> means "production" can go in either direction, brain making me sad as I
> react to its shifting chemistry

You don't "react to its shifting chemistry"! This picture supposes you exist along side your brain, separate from it yet subject to input from it. But that isn't the picture being proposed at all though, if it's your picture, it's just one more evidence of your dualist presumption!

> or me making me happier by causing my
> brain to change its chemistry.
>

This way of speaking makes no sense to me.

> Of course, this is unforgiveable Dualism. So, get past it.
>
> bruce
>

But Bruce, the dualism here is all in your way of interpreting what is being said. The picture proposed by Dennett and shared by researchers like Dehaene is not susceptible to any of your peculiar interpretations all of which presume dualism. It seems that you cannot see their point without becoming trapped by the dualist picture, suggesting to you that there is something wrong. But the error lies in persistently misinterpreting what is being said, in being unable to see past the dualist idea that consciousness cannot be reduced to what isn't conscious itself.

SWM

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4.3.

Where is the "I"?

Posted by: "Joseph Polanik" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Dec 14, 2009 5:03 pm (PST)



SWM wrote:

>BruceD wrote:

>>SWM wrote:

>>>The point of Dehaene's research is to explore and discover how the
>>>brain produces the phenomenon of subjective awareness.

>>Same question, Should I think of the "brain producing awareness" the
>>way I think of my heart pumping blood, something I feel and can see?
>>If so, where is the "I" in relation to the phenomena I observe.

>Aside from the fact that blood in the circulatory system is a different
>phenomenon than subjective experience (i.e., subjectness, being a
>subject, etc.), and so we should not expect to discover or attend to
>them in quite the same way, the analogy does hold. The "I" is found in
>the aspect of being a subject that we count as the experiencer, the
>construct of mental features that count as the mechanism which yields
>our sense of being a self.

>Now the question has arisen nearby as to whether there is really a
>there there. As Kant pointed out long ago, if you peel back the layers
>of the onion of consciousness, pretty soon you come to a point where
>there is nothing to behold. The subject perceiving isn't, itself, an
>object of perception.

>Does this mean there is no "I", no self?

those interested in Kant's treatment of self-awareness, self-reference
and self-knowledge might check out:

1. "Kant, Self-Awareness and Self-Reference" by Andrew Brook (online at
http://http-server.carleton.ca/~abrook/kant-self.htm).

2. "Kant's View of the Mind and Consciousness of Self", a SEP article by
Brook (http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/kant-mind/).

for present purposes, the important point is that, if there is a
phenomenon, there is some metaphenomenal reality (noumenal reality in
Kantian jargon) responsible for producing that phenomenon.

Joe

--

Nothing Unreal is Self-Aware

@^@~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~@^@
http://what-am-i.net
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5.1.

Re: Dehane a physicalist?

Posted by: "BruceD" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Dec 14, 2009 2:06 pm (PST)




--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@...> wrote:

> His use of "awareness" has to do with "access consciousness",
> the idea that we know what we're doing

I take it he starts with the fact of "access consciousness" and looks
for the brain correlate? And having found it, he thinks that AC is a
product of brain, like a wave or signal, just something there. Where?

> He specifically excludes other aspects of being conscious such as
self-consciousness
> (having an idea of a self) and reflexive consciousness
> (thinking about thinking about what we're doing).

Why? Because these have no brain correlates?

Anyway, it is reasonable to speak of "knowing what we're doing" separate
from "self-consciousness" in humans?

bruce

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5.2.

Re: Dehane a physicalist?

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Dec 14, 2009 4:10 pm (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "BruceD" <blroadies@...> wrote:

>
> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@> wrote:
>
> > His use of "awareness" has to do with "access consciousness",
> > the idea that we know what we're doing
>
> I take it he starts with the fact of "access consciousness" and looks
> for the brain correlate? And having found it, he thinks that AC is a
> product of brain, like a wave or signal, just something there. Where?
>

Read what he wrote. Indeed, the answer to this last question was in the text I reproduced for you in a prior post.

> > He specifically excludes other aspects of being conscious such as
> self-consciousness
> > (having an idea of a self) and reflexive consciousness
> > (thinking about thinking about what we're doing).
>
> Why? Because these have no brain correlates?
>

No, because he is doing science and so wants to home in on one thing at a time, aiming to get at what seems the least complex first.

> Anyway, it is reasonable to speak of "knowing what we're doing" separate
> from "self-consciousness" in humans?
>
> bruce
>
>
>

We can know what we're doing without thinking about knowing what we're doing, which is what he means by reflexive consciousness. Of course "knowing what we're doing" as in being aware of what we're doing IS what he means by access consciousness.

SWM

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6.1.

Re: Emergence

Posted by: "BruceD" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Dec 14, 2009 3:51 pm (PST)





--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@...> wrote:

> > 2. Emergence is "the way", not causation from another level.
> In that sense, emergence is unpredictable, a bit of a surprise.

>
> That only reflects when we are ignorant of something.

Ignorant of what? Two choices. 1- We are ignorant of the empirical cause of mind 2- We are ignorant to think that mind has a cause.

This is our difference. I wrote..

> consciousness is not a property of the brain, as such,
> but of the person who has a brain. You wrote..

> it would be a good description of Dehaene's claim
> that consciousness is a "global neuronal workspace"

Only if D is claiming that is I who is using this GNW. If "I" only refers to me as a physical entity, and C is identical to the GNW, then there person or I in Dehaena's thought.

> What you need to do is make the case for why there are
> some aspects of consciousness that can never be accounted
> for in terms of physically based processes.

A good question, but needs unpacking. In one sense, I can't say "why" this world is this way rather than another way. That we are conscious in a physical world, is the way it is. I wouldn't know what theory could explain this reality.

Also, emergence is not inconsistent with consciousness (any and all aspects) being accounted for physically. I drink and get and drunk. What emergence insists upon is the consciousness cannot be identified with anything on the physical level and hence cannot stand in a causal relationship.

Note: To say that mind is emergent is not say it is a new substance or spirit. Dualism is irrelevant.

bruce

=========================================
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6.2.

Re: Emergence

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Dec 14, 2009 4:28 pm (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "BruceD" <blroadies@...> wrote:

>
>
> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@> wrote:
>
> > > 2. Emergence is "the way", not causation from another level.
> > In that sense, emergence is unpredictable, a bit of a surprise.
>
> >
> > That only reflects when we are ignorant of something.

> Ignorant of what? Two choices. 1- We are ignorant of the empirical cause of mind 2- We are ignorant to think that mind has a cause.
>

Different senses of "ignorant". The first denotes lack of knowledge, the second lack of understanding.

> This is our difference. I wrote..
>
> > consciousness is not a property of the brain, as such,
> > but of the person who has a brain. You wrote..
>
> > it would be a good description of Dehaene's claim
> > that consciousness is a "global neuronal workspace"
>

> Only if D is claiming that is I who is using this GNW. If "I" only refers to me as a physical entity, and C is identical to the GNW, then there person or I in Dehaena's thought.
>

You don't USE a global neuronal workspace as you may use computational workspace on a computer or within a computational network. Nor is anyone saying that "I" only refers to oneself as a physical entity if all you mean here is a certain mass of molecules. The "I" refers to a subject and the subject is the product of certain physical processes running in a certain way on a certain kind of platform, etc. That the subject is reducible to so many molecules doing so many things is not to deny that consciousness isn't a physical object, not a specific molecule or mass of molecules, but to affirm that it is such molecules performing such and such operations.

The turning of the wheel is as physical as the wheel though, unlike the wheel, it is not a physical object.


> > What you need to do is make the case for why there are
> > some aspects of consciousness that can never be accounted
> > for in terms of physically based processes.
>
> A good question, but needs unpacking. In one sense, I can't say "why" this world is this way rather than another way.

Not the question. Rather you need to say why THAT is the best description of the world, or the relevant part of it, not why it is one way instead of another! Note my reference to "accounting" above. The point is to say why we should explain consciousness as essentially non-physical rather than as being physical in the sense of being the product of physical elements doing certain perfectly physical things.

> That we are conscious in a physical world, is the way it is. I wouldn't know what theory could explain this reality.
>

You missed the point of my question! I am not asking something like why is the earth the third planet from the sun!

> Also, emergence is not inconsistent with consciousness (any and all aspects) being accounted for physically. I drink and get and drunk. What emergence insists upon is the consciousness cannot be identified with anything on the physical level and hence cannot stand in a causal relationship.
>

Emergence as a concept does no such thing. One can speak of wetness as an emergent property of H2O molecules as readily as saying it is caused by the behavior of those molecules. The point is that there need be no mystery invoked, only an explanation that notes that things have different manifestations at different levels of observation. I have no problem with this concept of emergence which is why I asked you to define it rather than to simply use it unexplicated.

> Note: To say that mind is emergent is not say it is a new substance or spirit. Dualism is irrelevant.
>
> bruce
>

It depends on what one means by "emergent". However, nearly everything else you say suggests dualism (see my responses to your comments nearby). So it is important to be clear on just what you have in mind when asserting "emergence". As noted above, I can live with the use of "emergence" in lieu of causation in the present debate as long as we are clear on what "emergence" means here. I have always said it doesn't matter to me whether we say brains "cause" or "produce" or "engender" consciousness or that consciousness "emerges" out of brains. I only insist that nothing mystical or inherently mysterious be presumed by the use of the term because, once you do THAT, you change its meaning and lose the point I am making: that consciousness is existentially dependent on certain physical platforms (the only one we know today being an animal brain, of course).

So, since you asked me to show you where Dehaene says brains cause consciousness and I have done so, what is the next issue you want to raise?

SWM

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