[C] [Wittrs] Digest Number 66

  • From: WittrsAMR@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • To: WittrsAMR@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: 7 Dec 2009 10:57:07 -0000

Title: WittrsAMR

Messages In This Digest (15 Messages)

Messages

1a.

Re: When The New Wittgenstein Arrived

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sun Dec 6, 2009 7:36 am (PST)



It being the weekend, I'm not able to put in as much time on the computer as during the week but I will certainly attend to some of the longer commentaries here as time permits. Meanwhile, this one looks like one I can handle with only relatively small amount of typing so I'll start here and try to get to the others as time permits. Note, though, Sean that I suspect that to answer some of the recent comments directed my way by posters, I shall have to do more text interspersing than usual and that means less cutting away. I know you prefer that we snip the excess verbiage and I shall still try to do that as I can.


--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, Sean Wilson <whoooo26505@...> wrote:
>
> Stuart:
>
> I know of the preface to the publication. Thanks for offering that to the list. But it does seem that you have once again suggested something false or that you have not understood it. So just to be perfectly clear for those who are confused, I offer the following.
>

> Academics are always working on their ideas in one format or another, particularly if they have original thoughts. If you have original and novel ideas, you'll give them in lectures. You'll make notes or outlines for your students (or they will). You'll generate manuscripts (conference papers), second and third drafts ("typescripts"), and so forth. In this day and age, you'll even have dictation and emails. Let us call the sum of these things the "paper-trail of your thoughts." Or better yet, let's call it by what the lawyers do: "work product."
>

> Wittgenstein had a particular style of "work product." He wrote remarks in notebooks. He then went back into the notebooks and created manuscripts from the remarks he thought more worthy. From these manuscripts, he created a further selection which he dictated to a typist. These were called "typescripts." According to Monk (319), he used these typescripts either for the creation of other (more-edited) typescripts or began re-arranging the content by cutting up remarks, clipping them together and so forth. Monk says that he would then start the process all over again! (lol). This entire reflective and regurgitive process continued for over twenty
> years for the period we are talking about.

Like you and, presumably, others here, I'm familiar with Monk and the information you cite. I don't see the relevance thus far to what I wrote but I'll read on, of course.

> He never reached a final version of anything that he found fit for publishing.

Aside from the Tractatus and a brief early piece as I recall! Duncan Richter once shared with us on the Wittgenstein-Dialognet an essay on ethics that, as I recall, Wittgenstein had published which, I believe, was different from the other one. So it is possible that he published at least two short pieces in his lifetime (if the ethical piece was indeed published and differs from the one you reference -- as I recall it was, but it's been a while since we had that discussion and I could be remembering it incorrectly).

But I'm not sure that this is all that significant to the question at hand which is whether 1) The Blue and Brown Books were developed in what is commonly referred to as Wittgenstein's transitional phase (between the era of the Tractatus and the later teachings which culminated in the mostly-ready-for-publication Investigations, later published posthumously) and whether 2) The Blue and Brown Books (or The Blue Book or The Brown Book) can be taken as final and fixed statements of his later thinking.

I think the argument for #1, that this material occurred during his "transitional" period relies on where one draws the lines of the transition. And that must depend on the status of his ideas at the time (how fully formed they were relative to what we find later on in the Investigations and On Certainty).

As I noted in my comments re: the preface of the books, Rhees considered that The Blue Book consisted of notes dictated by Wittgenstein to some of his students in a classroom setting and notes that he did review and edit them before passing them along to Russell. (Wittgenstein is quoted as saying as much in the note to Russell that Rhees includes in the preface.)

Per Rhees, The Brown Book was intended by Wittgenstein to be something more, i.e., the basis of a published work he had promised Russell. Wittgenstein dictated this material to two of his students (much as he had previously dicatated his ideas to G. E. Moore and David Pinsent at various times in the past). In the event, per Rhees, Wittgenstein spent a good deal of time working with the material we now know as The Brown Book trying to refine it with an eye toward publication.

He apparently ended that process with some handwritten text in German in the manuscript he was working on by noting that it was worthless. Obviously we do not consider it worthless since we spend a great deal of time studying it but it's unquestionable that he did, at least at the time he wrote that comment.

Rhees writes that Wittgenstein then gave up on this manuscript and started in earnest on a new manuscript which eventually became the first part of the Investigations which he was satisfied enough with to have planned to publish.

Rhees goes on to note in that preface that there is a great deal of evidence of transition in The Blue and Brown Books and cites evidence beginning with the way in which Wittgenstein formulated and discussed certain ideas, like "language games." I actually stopped my transcribing of his remarks at that point but, of course, if you think it would be helpful and if I can find some time, I can try to type more onto the list for a closer reading to see to what extent we can find evidence here for Rhees' claim that these books were transitional (i.e., they did not yet reflect the fully formed ideas we find in the Investigations).

> His literary executors, therefore, were left with the task of rummaging through all the various typescripts, tangents, remarks, clipped segments and so forth in order to
> reconstruct his views as best as can be. (Go read the preface to Zettel, which apparently is a bunch of remarks Wittgenstein clipped together and stored in a box). That is what true Wittgensteinianism is --  it's a reconstruction. It's the same sort of thing you would need to understand (historical) Jesus or Socrates. 
>

I don't know what "true Wittgensteinianism" is, other than to do philosophy as he did it. And one of the things he did was insist on questioning everything, even himself.

> Now, what you are saying is that somehow the Blue and Brown books should be cast aside for some reason.

Sean, I did not say that. Where do you see me doing so? In fact, The Blue and Brown Books were my original door into Wittgenstein. I read them before the Tractatus and before the Investigations, before Zettel and before the Notebooks (and before the other material of his I have read in later days, including Culture and Value, The Lectures on Aesthetics, Religion and Psychology, and On Certainty). I have always found The Blue and Brown Books to be among the most congenial of his works. Indeed, when I retrieved my copy to type in the pertinent text from Rhee's preface I was disconcerted to see that my copy is dogeared these days and starting to fall apart at the binding. As it's my old copy from my college days and my first intro to Wittgenstein, however, I am trying to keep it whole. I don't see how you can imagine that a statement by me, that we should not take what we find in this material as dispositive for the final form of his ideas that we find in his later work, as an invitation to cast this material aside.

> You've also included Culture and Value (in the past) and, I assume, biography (letters, diaries and so forth). But when it is all said and done, I don't know what it is that you are pointing to as "the
> finished work" or "the real thing."

What I am pointing out is that his work was always a work in progress and that we find more fully formed ideas in his later work and that, where there are questions about what he meant it is better to go with 1) the later work and 2) the work he basically approved for publication (i.e., that he actually intended to publish in the form we have it). Thus when there are disputes between his intentions or his understandings, what is discernible in the Investigations, say, should trump in out minds what is discernible in works like The Blue and Brown Books.

None of this is to suggest that the latter are not valuable or that they do not represent a significant change/development from his earlier stage of thinking.

I have also suggested that where he, himself, has suggested that he was wrong (as he does in his preface to the Investigations with regard to unspecified elements in the Tractatus) we ought to pay some attention. His failure to cite what he specifically had in mind adds difficulty to our attending to it but we can still discern quite a bit of difference between the two works. When we do, we should attend to the first rule I mention above: "where there are questions about what he meant it is better to go with 1) the later work".

> People who truly read Philosophical Investigations find very important help in this regard in all the other manuscripts and remarks. In fact, there is no indication at all that Wittgenstein ever wanted his Cambridge lectures retracted. Rather, he always wanted them UNDERSTOOD. So the Blue Books are not some weird collection of odd views that have to be set aside because they are "transitory."
>

Suggesting they are representative of his transitional period (thought and recorded during the time his thinking was evolving from its earlier Tractarian phase) is NOT to say they are without value or should not be understood. If you (and apparently some others here) take that to have been my point I'm afraid you have misread me.

But note, I am and have always been, leery of deifying anyone, including Wittgenstein. First, he was only human like the rest of us and therefore prone to error. Second, he was clearly a troubled soul (see his jottins in Culture and Value). Third he was, himself, more than willing to question his own ideas and, if he was willing, how can we be unwilling? If we admire his ideas and insights, should we abandon his intensely critical, and sometimes iconoclastic, approach?

> Now, let's deal with the Brown Book and the publication issue. This is another misunderstanding. Monk is correct when he asserts of the Brown Book, that it "reads almost like a textbook," (I prefer the term manual), because it is an application of his new method. Monk writes, "It is as though the book was intended to serve as a text in a course designed to nip in the bud any latent philosophizing." This is because there is "no philosophical moral ... drawn other than ... understanding" language games.(342-343). Monk goes on to say, "There is no indication that Wittgenstein considered publishing the Brown Book." (346). (Please do note that sentence).
>

I don't recall Monk's comment to that point but I'll take your word for it as I believe you have read The Duty of Genius more recently than I have. Nevertheless, what you are giving me is the opinion of one scholar and Rhees is clearly a different person with a different opinion and, more, he was a younger contemporary and colleague of Wittgenstein (and, if I recall correctly, at one time a student).

> Now, what Rhees is talking about appears to be something subtly different. He's talking about the fact that in 1936 Wittgenstein was going about his usual manners, regurgitating and reformulating his work product (making insertions here and there).  At this point in time, Wittgenstein isn't really working on "THE BROWN BOOK" per se
>(as it to publish "IT"),

That's decidedly NOT what Rhees says. Now I wasn't there so I have only Rhees' opinion to go on (and whatever evidence Rhees had before him). But you weren't there either. So we are arguing about the opinions of two different writers here. I only offered Rhees' words and took them in their ordinary English sense. I did not endeavor to interpret his meaning. I let his comments speak for themselves.

> but upon the same "thing" that he is working on when he cuts and plays with his typescripts. He's just trying to find a way to birth
> his product. So he's using teh Brown Book AS A TYPESCRIPT. 

That could be but what evidence do you have for that, i.e., that Rhees' explicit statement about this is wrong? It's possible it is, of course. But we cannot just refashion a meaning to his words and I think his statement was pretty explicit on the matter. So either he was wrong or your reinterpretation of what he meant alters how we should take his explicit statements. But such a reinterpretation needs to be supported by something more than a desire to read him as saying something different than he seems to be saying.

> In this respect, he makes some insertions and then later declares, "This whole attempt at revision, from the start right up to this point, is WORTHLESS". [allcaps substituted for italics in quote -- sw].  And so, he puts down that typescript and begins writing (I should say, completing!) what will be 1-188 in PI.
>

As a writer myself (though hardly in his class) I can say that one very often works on multiple drafts of a thing simultaneously so what you propose is not impossible. But what is the evidence for it? Rhees clearly believed (when he wrote that preface) that Wittgenstein had the idea of turning The Brown Book into a publishable document. He says that quite explicitly. If he is wrong, can you offer a reason beyond the fact that Wittgenstein, scholars in general and writers of many sorts often work on multiple manuscripts and, in so doing, don't always intend for each and every bit of work they are busy with to be published?

> There is no contradiction between Rhees and Monk. There is only the language game and the failure to know biography. Rhees is saying the Brown Book might have been thought to be published one day because
> Wittgenstein chose to grind it up in his workmill.

No, he said in no uncertain terms that Wittgenstein worked on it with an eye toward publishing it.

> All that that means is that the Brown Book was input material for the mill.

Everything we work on but put aside becomes input material for what we do later on, either negatively or positively. All such activity is work-in-progress until the form is fixed via a publishing date!

> Monk is saying "the Brown Book" BEFORE IT IS MAKRED UP -- the historical one -- was not attempted to be published.

I suppose I could get that Monk biography down to see if he is making such a definitive statement but I don't see the point in doing so. I will take your word that Monk was saying that.

> That is an historical fact.

That he says this does not make it an historical fact. It may make it something you or other readers accept as an historical fact but if there is evidence to the contrary or other credible witnesses, then asserting that this is "settled" Wittgensteinian scholarship is an overstatement.

> That is true. It was not written to be published; it was written to serve as an application of the new method (apparently for his classes).

As you say, that is Monk's view. It is not what Rhees wrote and I cited Rhees. Now perhaps we have a case of dueling authorities here. If so, it is not resolvable by simply reinterpreting one, without any evidence to rest our reinterpretation on except the say-so of the other!

> (Or perhaps just as feed for the mill -- just another typescript).
>
> Now, if I am wrong that Rhees and Monk are not really disagreeing, I must say that I would be suspicious of the claim that Wittgenstein thought of the Brown Book "for a time" as a draft of something he might publish.

Here at least you recognize that Rhees WAS saying something quite different than you have reinterpreted him as saying.

> There is all sorts of historical information indicating that he did not want that stuff officially "out there." There is every bit of historical evidence to think of the Brown Book as just another Wittgensteinian typescript no different than the box files of Zettel or the manuscripts that form the various segments of PI.  
>

What information besides Monk's assessment? Do you recall if Monk cites any reasons for thinking thus? any of the historical evidence that is independent of his own opinion? And why would you think that Monk, a later scholar, would be in a better position to assess Wittgenstein's intentions than Rhees, a contemporary who actually knew the man in a professional setting and who worked directly with the material Wittgenstein left at his death?

> So I would hope that in the future you think better of your history of Wittgenstein's manuscripts.
>
>

Sean, I think everything I have said here is supportable and that, indeed, I have given support for it. A close reading of your response doesn't undermine my claims, namely that 1) Rhees wrote that Wittgenstein treated the manuscript that became The Brown Book as the basis for a publishable work for a time before discarding it in frustration, that 2) The Blue and Brown Books were taken down by students of his (the first as classroom notes, the second as private dictation) with some oversight by him, or that 3) they were produced during the period when Wittgenstein's ideas were changing as he groped his way toward a firmer grasp of his new ideas about philosophy and the problems of that discipline and that, therefore, the ideas expressed in this material are not as fully formed or as clear as we later find them in works like the PI.

I really don't understand this attitude of deification that is so prevalent among so many admirers of Wittgenstein. Why should we think he could not have been wrong at times, not have made mistakes or seen things less than perfectly, etc., if, in fact, he tells us he has himself on numerous occasions?

Nevertheless, I see that even on a list like this there are thresholds beyond which people cannot cross! We all have our sacred precincts I suppose, here no less than on a list like Analytic! That's a good thing to know about ourselves, don't you think?

SWM

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1b.

Re: When The New Wittgenstein Arrived

Posted by: "Sean Wilson" whoooo26505@xxxxxxxxx   whoooo26505

Sun Dec 6, 2009 3:13 pm (PST)



Stuart:

1. The BB is a typescript like many of W's.

2. The material from 1930 to 1939 is all very proximate, including the lectures.

3. Your confused, again, on other meandering. The piece that he had published pre-dates the period where Monk describes his work methods (and says they never produced anything he found fit to publish). And the piece wasn't an ethic's paper. It was "Some Remarks on Logical Form" that was published in the 1929 Annual Joint Session of the Aristotelian Society and the Mind Association. (And disavowed by Wittgenstein as worthless "almost as soon as he sent it off to be printed" -- see Monk, 273). The ethics paper that you are apparently referring to was a paper he delivered to a society called "The Heritics" at the invitation of C.K. Ogden, the translator of the Tractatus. (See 276).

4. It's not clear to me that you absorbed the point I made that Monk and Rhees may not not be in disagreement. I think the culprit is that you seem to sit at the computer and type your thoughts right as you see a sentence. May I suggest reading the whole thing and absorbing the point before you reply? In any event, I'm not going to chase a reconstruction or participate in a telephone conversation. So I'm out on this one now.

Regards.

Dr. Sean Wilson, Esq.
Assistant Professor
Wright State University
Personal Website: http://seanwilson.org
SSRN papers: http://ssrn.com/author=596860
Discussion Group: http://seanwilson.org/wittgenstein.discussion.html

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1c.

Re: When The New Wittgenstein Arrived

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sun Dec 6, 2009 5:22 pm (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, Sean Wilson <whoooo26505@...> wrote:
>
> Stuart:
>
> 1. The BB is a typescript like many of W's.
>
> 2. The material from 1930 to 1939 is all very proximate, including the lectures.
>

He returned to Cambridge and philosophy again in 1929. The ensuing decade saw a steady transition in his thinking. By the end of the decade his ideas had fairly firmed up in the new way. The period between that end point and the time he returned is generally thought of as transitional in his thinking as his ideas gradually morphed from the older Tractarian model to the new Wittgenstein.

Certainly his ideas changed during that period as can be seen in his various writings. Take another look at Rhees' preface to the Blue and Brown Books where he makes the case for the underdevelopment of many of the later ideas as they start to appear in the Blue and Brown Books. (After all, if there had been no change, then why keep re-writing the various manuscripts to get them right as he did? Or why write anything new at all? Better to just rest on one's laurels and teach the old stuff over and over or do like Russell and take to popularizations.)

> 3. Your confused, again, on other meandering.

?

> The piece that he had published pre-dates the period where Monk describes his work methods (and says they never produced anything he found fit to publish).

I wasn't suggesting it pre-dated or post-dated Monk's description. In fact I wasn't saying anything about its relation to Monk's statements at all. What I said was that he published at least one other paper in his lifetime and that I also recall Duncan Richter sharing with us another paper of his from the '30s having to do with ethics (because I had asked if anyone was familiar with anything Wittgenstein had ever done specifically on ethics). I don't think I saved the link but I will look for it. I am unsure whether that is one and the same with the paper that he is commonly known to have published, other than the Tractatus, in his lifetime but I made no representations about that possible identity. So about what am I confused?

> And the piece wasn't an ethic's paper. It was "Some Remarks on Logical Form" that was published in the 1929 Annual Joint Session of the Aristotelian Society and the Mind Association.

See above.

>(And disavowed by Wittgenstein as worthless "almost as soon as he sent it off to be printed" -- see Monk, 273). The ethics paper that you are apparently referring to was a paper he delivered to a society called "The Heritics" at the invitation of C.K. Ogden, the translator of the Tractatus. (See 276).
>

Ah, that sounds like it. But the issue isn't one of confusion but of incomplete recall as already noted. Perhaps you can come up with that link to it?

> 4. It's not clear to me that you absorbed the point I made that Monk and Rhees may not not be in disagreement.

I got it but denied it as Rhees is quite explicit in that text and you indicate that Monk was explicit as well. Now Rhees could be wrong or you may have modified your characterization of the distinctions so that they could both be right (or I may even have misunderstood your original characterization though it did look pretty clear).

Note that I never denied that they were "typescripts" as you put it. In fact I specifically noted that both the Blue Book and the Brown Book had their genesis in the dictation taken by some of his students and subsequently typed up and reproduced, the Blue Book delivered in a classroom setting, the Brown Book in a more private, more direct setting more intensely under his supervision and for a somewhat different purpose as Rhees suggests.

My only point was this: Rhees says (and we have reason to credit him as a fairly reliable witness) that Wittgenstein thought for a time that the text of the Brown Book could be developed into a publishable document and that he worked on it to that end. At a certain point he threw up his hands, changed his mind, called it "worthless" and shifted to writing (or completing) another manuscript which ultimately came to form the first part of what we have today as Philosophical Investigations. Rhees offers some interesting thoughts in his preface on the differences in the ideas floated in The Blue and Brown Books and in the later Investigations. (It's worth taking another look if you haven't had occasion to re-read it yet.)

> I think the culprit is that you seem to sit at the computer and type your thoughts right as you see a sentence. May I suggest reading the whole thing and absorbing the point before you reply? In any event, I'm not going to chase a reconstruction or participate in a telephone conversation. So I'm out on this one now.
>

Fair enough. Although there are times when I write line by line I always go back and refine if subsequent information further down the post suggests I have missed something, etc. I'm afraid I haven't the time to treat list posts as full fledged documents though, at times, when they are written like that and I do have the time to read them, I will.

In this case, note that you had said I had made a false statement and I responded to that by citing my source and pointing out his credibility, i.e., that Rhees is a reliable witness in a case like this. However, it doesn't mean that he is the only possible reliable witness or that he is necessarily right. These issues are certainly disputable. But your suggestion that I had made a false claim concerning Wittgenstein, and this material, and that I had done so repeatedly in the past is simply not true. I would be remiss if I accepted such a characterization because what I have said is not false and allowing it to be called that would be to allow something truthful to be treated as if it wasn't.

The evidence that my claim (no matter how many times I have made it here) is not false is before your eyes since it is not my claim but that of Rhees and I was merely referencing it. Now, I suppose it could still be false (Rhees could be wrong or mistaken) but just proposing that Monk has a different take than Rhees (if, indeed, he does) does not establish that what Rhees has stated is false. After all, Rhees was much closer to the source than Monk, however good the Monk biography is.

And now you have said your say on this and I have said mine and we can move on. I don't begrudge you your opinion or claim you may not even be right. But I do begrudge a claim that I am stating a falsehood in light of the fact that I have perfectly legitimate back-up for my position. Insofar as the truth of this can ever be known, we must rely on the testimony of witnesses and the evidence of documents. The testimony I have relied on here is at least as good as Monk's and, quite possibly, better.

SWM

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2a.

Re: apology Re: Blue Books

Posted by: "Sean Wilson" whoooo26505@xxxxxxxxx   whoooo26505

Sun Dec 6, 2009 8:21 am (PST)



(J DeMouy)

... I believe I've caught them all. Tough to remove posts with this set up!
 
SW

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2b.

Re: apology Re: Blue Books

Posted by: "J DeMouy" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sun Dec 6, 2009 9:30 am (PST)



Thank you. And I apologize for the inconvenience. And again for the disruptiveness.

--- On Sun, 12/6/09, Sean Wilson <whoooo26505@yahoo.com> wrote:

> From: Sean Wilson <whoooo26505@yahoo.com>
> Subject: [Wittrs] Re: apology Re: Blue Books
> To: wittrsamr@freelists.org
> Date: Sunday, December 6, 2009, 4:21 PM
> (J DeMouy)
>
> ... I believe I've caught them all. Tough to remove posts
> with this set up!
>  
> SW
>
>
>
> =========================================
> Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/
>
>

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2c.

apology Re: Blue Books

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sun Dec 6, 2009 10:22 am (PST)



You needn't have worried. I wasn't planning to respond to that one. -- SWM

--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, Sean Wilson <whoooo26505@...> wrote:
>
> (J DeMouy)
>
> ... I believe I've caught them all. Tough to remove posts with this set up!
>  
> SW
>
>
>
> =========================================
> Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/
>

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3a.

Re: Reading Wittgenstein, was Wittgenstein on Religious Belief

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sun Dec 6, 2009 9:53 am (PST)



J, I shall try to respond here if time permits. Your comments below are quite lengthy and I will do a bit of snipping in keeping with Sean's dictum here, if I can. I trust that nothing will be lost because, as Sean has often said, we can see what was said by going back up the thread.

--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, J DeMouy <wittrsamr@...> wrote:
>
> SWM
>
> Since you've expressed some confusion as to my position and purpose in participating on this thread, I thought it might be useful for me to start out by stating my position clearly (though I've attempted to do so previously), also specifying some things I am not arguing, before proceeding to reply more directly to your last post.
>

> So, my position:
>
> It is generally a mistake to interpret Wittgenstein as making contentious assertions when an interpretation that has him saying something that isn't contentious is readily available.
>

My response to your comments had to do with whether there are distinctions of importance to be made between different kinds of non-controversiality. I suggested that when Wittgenstein says that what a philosopher in the course of doing philosophy can only be non-controversial if it is philosophical is a reference to the idea that philosophers don't argue about facts, that they all accept the same facts about the world as everyone else and that, when we don't, the disputes at issue are disputes of an empirical nature, the subject of science and similar type investigations, not the philosophical kind. I proposed that the quintessential philosophical claims to be found in Wittgenstein may be seen in a work like On Certainty where he is engaged in pointing out subtle elements in the way we speak about things in order to explain how we come by or use certain ideas. He offers no new facts, nothing that anyone who is being honest would not agree with. What he offers, instead, is a different way of thinking about these things.

This is a different notion of "non-controversial" than the one Michael Martin presented in which he claimed that certain of the things Wittgenstein was saying about religion could be interpreted in such a way as to add nothing to our existing grasp of religious practices. Now we can dispute whether this is true or not but my point was addressed to your claim which was that Martin's point that Wittgenstein's suggestions could be read in a way no one would dispute added nothing was wrongheaded because Wittgenstein's method WAS to add nothing, i.e., to only offer statements we could all agree to.

The point of my response was to note that there was a yawning gap between just stating truisms and reminding us of truisms we may have forgotten or failed to notice in the hurly burly of everyday life and language.

> More specifically, it is generally a mistake to interpret Wittgenstein as making a broader, more general claim when a narrower, less general claim is as well or better supported by the text.
>

Can you give some specific examples of this general mistake aside from what you are, in my view wrongly, imputing to Martin?

> Finally, it is no ground for rejecting an interpretation of Wittgenstein that the interpretation would read him as saying something with which no one would disagree.
>

True. But if all he is saying is the obvious rather than the indisputable that would be a ground and this pivots on the distinction between what we notice and what we don't.

> I have argued that Michael Martin makes these mistakes and that they are mistakes. Those are my only concerns in posting on this thread.
>

<snip>

> The only value I see in Martin's reading is as an object lesson in one mistake that we can make in reading Wittgenstein generally.
>

And this is an interesting point though I think you are mistaken in your judgement of Martin's piece here for the reasons already noted.

> For my part, in my various readings on the Wittgenstein and religion topic, the closest to the views I've come to would be in chapter 5 of Duncan Richter's _Wittgenstein_At_His_Word_. Frankly, I don't see that I could add much to his discussion of the topic, save perhaps elaboration on the basic points that he makes as I understand them.
>

That would be interesting if you would care to offer such an elaboration.

<snip>

> Furthermore, I am not interested in debating whether Martin's arguments against the positions he ascribes to Wittgenstein are correct. They may well be and I am at least sympathetic with some his points against them. Many of the claims he thinks Wittgenstein was making are wrong-headed claims. But whether the positions he's attacking actually are Wittgenstein's positions and whether the arguments Martin uses in supporting his ascription of those views to Wittgenstein are valid are separate matters from whether those positions are wrong-headed and whether Martin is right to find fault with those positions.
>

> Lastly, before I get to responding directly to your last post in this thread, I want to mention some general arguments that I think fail to address what I am saying.
>

> It is no argument against my point for you to point out that philosophers do put forth theses while doing philosophy.

I rather thought my point in that was clear but I can make it again. I noted that it is a strange claim on Wittgenstein's part to say that philosophy never involves controversial claims when philosophers, both before and after Wittgenstein, and even Wittgensteinians themselves are always embroiled in disputing one another's opinions which is to say in controversy.

Now I am not arguing that any one side is more right than another, only that controversy seems to be the stuff of philosophy and even Wittgenstein couldn't avoid it. I did not offer an argument about this when I commented, I only noted that it seemed a strange statement, worth unpacking a bit to see what he meant. Somehow you seem to have taken that, itself, as a controversial claim, which only serves to further point up my original statement, that controversy seems to be the lifeblood of philosophy!

I went on to ask if perhaps Wittgenstein were just being polemical in his claim, if he meant something else than we might ordinarily take him to mean or if there were some other possibility. Somehow that comment and suggestion by me has now become the source of a new argument!

<snip>
>
> It is not even an argument to say that Wittgenstein on occasion puts forth contentious theses and argues for them. If he does that, he is being inconsistent. (I think we should be very careful in ascribing such inconsistency to him but I don't rule out the possibility that he wasn't always consistent.) But even if he was sometimes inconsistent, that doesn't license us to favor interpretations that point to further inconsistency when interpretations that don't inculpate him in further inconsistent are readily available.
>

I have no idea what you are talking about here. I pointed up the oddness of a certain statement of his that you quoted and wondered aloud on this list if we oughtn't to think a bit more about it. Oddly, you have made a controversy of it when you could have simply taken up my suggestion to further unpack the statement for its possible meanings or else simply ignored it!

> And if you take your examples of contentious theses that Wittgenstein allegedly advanced from your interpretation of his remarks on religion, you are also engaging in a petitio principii, because the interpretation of those remarks is part of what is in dispute.
>

This misinterprets the point I was making which was that there is ample evidence in a plain reading of the quotations that this interpretation WAS what he was offering and that the alternative, just telling us the obvious which adds no new insights, is NOT the same thing as relying on claims to which we would all agree and which yield a new insight. Martin accuses him of the former which is not what, on my view, we should interpret his statement of non-controversiality to be about, i.e., I raised the question of how to interpret the statement in paragraph 128:

"If one tried to advance theses in philosophy, it would never be possible to debate them, because everyone would agree to them."

Recall that I raised the question of what he had in mind by "theses" in the above.

My point here was that his idea of non-controversial statements, that is, of "theses in philosophy" that "would never be possible to debate. . . because everyone would agree to them" has to do with exposing the obvious that is hidden to us, i.e., it is about achieving a better picture of things, seeing or understanding something more clearly. In the end it's about insight.Note that he follows 128 in paragraph 129 with:

"The aspects of things that are most important for us are hidden because of their simplicity and familiarity. (One is unable to notice something -- because it is always before one's eyes.) The real foundations of his enquiry do not strike a man at all. Unless that fact has at some time struck him. -- And this means we fail to be struck by what, once seen, is most striking and powerful."

Now, in fact, I think Wittgenstein DID believe his remarks on religious claims of belief were new in this sense and to an extent I think he was right right that a part of religion is done this way in many cases. But my larger point was that it fails as an account of religion per se or even of a certain, rather narrow class of some religions. Insofar as it fails on that level, we have gained very little from the perspective of better understanding religion because, in the end, the really important parts of the religious practices with which we are familiar cannot help but clash in different areas with the empirical.

> I also want to let you know that when you ascribe some claim to Wittgenstein and I ask where he said such a thing, I am asking for a direct quotation, a source. Telling me that it's a paraphrase without telling me what it is you're paraphrasing is not helpful and doesn't support your interpretation. And to instead ask me if I have > an alternate paraphrase is simply ridiculous!

Let me be very clear here. I did not ascribe a claim to Wittgenstein. I presented my understanding of what he was saying and never suggested it was anything but. Wittgenstein famously did not make lots of explicit claims but tended to examine, analyze examples, look at cases. I made a generalization reflecting MY understanding of his analyses in the area in question. You challenged that and I suggested you say what you considered to be a better way of putting it. This isn't about dueling quotations, at least not yet.

> An alternate paraphrase of what? Am I supposed to read your mind while digging through what Wittgenstein has written in hopes of
> hitting on whatever passage you may have misread?

I didn't offer a quote or citation nor did I say that I was doing so or even telling you something Wittgenstein had said. I offered MY interpretation of his position which is culled from extensive reading of his words, not founded on some explicit remark. You challenged me and I said I was offering my paraphrase of his idea and suggested that, if you thought I had it wrong, you could offer your own. Instead you've elected to call for quotes. When I quote something or allude to a quote, I will certainly supply it. For now my interest is in how and why your take on this aspect of Wittgenstein is different from mine.

> If you ascribe a position to Wittgenstein, the burden is on you to support your reading. the burden is not on me to guess how you arrived at such a reading and show you the alternative.
>

Again, I offered my interpretation of Wittgenstein's claims about religion. However, there certainly are quotations available, some of them already cited by Martin in that paper Gerardo posted here. Nearby I actually went back to that paper and posted some text from it (including relevant quotes from Wittgenstein offered by Martin). I haven't seen your response to it, yet.

> And whether Wittgenstein could be called "contentious" as a person is quite separate from whether he though one should try to advance contentious claims in the course of doing philosophy. One might be quite contentious, in doing philosophy or in other aspects of one's life, while still refraining from trying to advance theses while doing philosophy.
>

The issue of "contentious" insofar as it means "controversial", something informed parties would be likely to contest (argue about), is what we were addressing of course. But my point was that Wittgenstein himself was famously contentious in that sense though more so in his early years than his later. (In his later years he seems to have mostly held forth to those who wanted to hear him and ignored the rest, such as Popper when he shows up at that famous meeting of the Moral Sciences Club in Cambridge.) Note, as well, that Russell found Wittgenstein particularly contentious in the early years in matters of philosophy (up to and including the rhinocerous in the room).

Anyway, I made the point of his contentiousness as a way of opening up the question of what he must actually have meant in his enigmatic sentence at paragraph 128 in the PI. It wasn't advanced as a basis for an argument or part of an argument about the subject.

> Further, it is also not an argument (and I don't think I should even have to point this out) to say that we're arguing now. We're not doing philosophy!

I think you have confused my suggestion that we examine what the statement at PI 128 means, in light of certain facts (about philosophers and the role of argument) with an argument against the "truth" of that statement. Thus you have chosen to argue about something I wasn't arguing about! Let me reiterate: I suggested we consider what 128 actually means, especially in regard to his use of "theses."

> Literary exegesis is not philosophy, even if the literature in question is philosophical. History is not philosophy, even if the historian is writing on the history of philosophy. Of course, in discussing interpretations of what Wittgenstein said, we're going to be putting forth theses! But that's not what we should call "doing philosophy".
>

See above.

><snip>

> It is also not an argument to simply tell me that I should look further" and "consider" that Wittgenstein is using "theses" in some
> unusual sense.

For someone who is keen on doing philosophy in a Wittgensteinian way (defined as not arguing) you are awfully keen to impute arguments to me! But if I am not arguing, then your imputation that I am is the only argument in play here.

> I've already considered and rejected that and I presented my reasons for doing so. Unless you propose something more substantial than a vague and totally unsupported suggestion that he's using the word differently, unless you specify what that different usage might be and show some textual basis for reading him that way, all you're really saying amounts to is, "Maybe we should just ignore what he said".
>

First, I suggested we do a little intellectual digging re: his use of the term "theses" in this context. I did NOT make a claim about what he meant but only about some of the things he MIGHT have meant.

Second, I never said anything about ignoring what he said. My point was that just because those are his words, it does not necessarily mean we know what he meant. All words are not equally transparent as to meaning and Wittgenstein was famously difficult at times to penetrate.

Third, I HAVE offered several alternative proposals including that he meant "theses" in a specialized sense, that he was polemicizing, that he was being inconsistent, and that he may have been confused himself.
I didn't ARGUE for any of these. I raised the possibilities.

Fourth, as to textual citation, above I offered paragraph 129 as support for my claim that he meant, in 128, the kind of thing what involves seeing the obvious that we do not always notice, rather than seeing the obvious that everyone knows (which is the criticism leveled against him by Martin).

> Alluding to various elements from Wittgenstein's private life and his personal religious views and struggles and vaguely insisting that there's some connection there between that biographical information and the views you or Martin ascribe to him without actually spelling > out what that connection is supposed to be is engaging in
> irrelevancy.

Some on this list have taken the position that one cannot fully understand Wittgenstein unless one also is familiar with his private life, his personal history. While that is not generally my position we have often discussed such things on this list but, beyond this, since we are speaking of his views on religion, his practices vis a vis religion do happen to be relevant in the present case (though I would not generally pay too much attention to such concerns in some other areas).

> And adding more biographical information does not count as "spelling it out". "Spelling it out" would be making explicit how a given aspect of his life is supposed to make one interpretation of his ideas more plausible than another and more plausible than it would be without such biographical information.
>

> Just saying, "How could it not be relevant?" is using some plausible but vague intuition about his motives as an excuse to engage in gossip.

Then, no doubt, all biography insofar as it gets personal is gossip. Frankly, I have great unease that Culture and Value was even published (though I understand the expunged some of the really personal and, as they deemed it, irrelevant stuff). But it was and there IS useful information in it about his religious beliefs and ideas. Given that the Lectures we're discussing were compiled from student notes (in this case without his oversight, as I recall) and never intended for publication, why should they be anymore dispositive about his thinking than what is found in Culture and Value, his own writings (even if not intended for publication)? More, given that we are dealing with the odds and ends of his philosophical life, why place anymore credence on one than the other? Don't they all need to be seen in common? Can we hope to draw the line here and exclude anything that is now in the public domain if it is relevant to what is being considered?

> Not that I am condemning gossip, per se, but it is a distraction if it isn't actually enriching our understanding of the text in a demonstrable way or providing an actual argument to support one interpretation or another.
>

I am suggesting it is enriching it, of course, since when discussing religion and his beliefs about what it means to profess religious beliefs it is useful to see how he did it and how it worked for him to the best that we can discern this.

> One more thing on that point: even if biographical data did somehow make Martin's reading more plausible, that would not undermine my main thesis. My point is that Martin's arguments for his interpretation are mistaken. But if there are other, better arguments, his interpretation itself might not be mistaken.
>

My point is that your thesis hinges on collapsing two different kinds of "non-controversiality" which was the reason I suggested we consider in more depth what he may have meant by his statement in 128.

> SW has pointed out elsewhere that your remarks about the relationship Blue Book and the overall development of Wittgenstein's thought are mistaken.

Sean is wrong though, of course, he is entitled to his opinion.

> I have nothing to add to that but I will ask this: what was your point? Did you wish to claim that later, Wittgenstein had decided that "craving for generality" and "contempt for the particular case" were not in fact impediments to doing philosophy?

My point on that score was to say that you overreach in arguing that Wittgenstein's later emphasis on the particular (which is undisputed) obviates the criticisms made by Martin. Wittgenstein does not have to say that he was speaking of all religions, all the time, for some his points to be relevant to certain instances of religion since, if his point is right, then there ought to be some religious cases where it makes sense to say that belief in the facts of the claim are not held by the proponent to be relevant. At the least it's instructive to note that his more precise points in the Lectures about religion do not find their way into his later published work, the PI, while some of his pscyhological stuff does.

> Do I really need to marshal quotes from later texts where he similarly warns us about generality and reminds us to look at particular cases and attend to differences between them?
>

You can do as you like, of course. I always enjoy examining Wittgenstein's actual words in a group though I am unwilling most of the time to do the transcribing onto this list. If you do it, however, I have taken to keeping my PI and a few other books nearby so we can certainly engage in a little exegetical tete a tete.

> Finally, saying "no" and insisting that I misread Martin and should read him more closely is not an argument. You have to actually support such a claim.
>

That's what I was doing in what you ignored. However, having done it, I don't relish the idea of simply doing it again. Suffice it to say that I offered a "no" as you put it assuming you'd already read and understood what I had posted before. If you ignored it or didn't process it is not something I can know at the time.

> Here again are some quotations from Martin's text illustrating the mistake I've been talking about, with my own emphasis added:
>

Good, let's have a look:

>
> "Is an interpretation available that does not assume that Wittgenstein is making general claims about the nature of religion? There are a number but the more obvious ones are either dubious or NOT VERY INTERESTING."
>
> "For example, it might be suggested that some religious beliefs have the properties that he specifies. BUT FEW PEOPLE WOULD DENY THIS."
>

Here I take him to mean that few would do so because it is not one of those things that is hidden in plain sight as it were (see 129). The same for what follows:

> "One might suggest that some Protestant religious beliefs have the properties that he characterizes. BUT WHO WOULD DENY THAT THIS IS TRUE...?"
>
> "Is there any interpretation that makes Wittgenstein's view NEITHER NONCONTROVERSIAL nor clearly wrong?"
>
> "WHO WOULD WANT TO DENY the thesis that some religious believers and nonbelievers talk past one another?"
>

The points of these quotes is to say that Wittgenstein's comments don't offer anything especially useful in the way of a new means of understanding religious practice and belief. It is an arguable view of course. My own criticism of Wittgenstein's ideas about religious practice and belief is that they don't accord with actual experience which is a related but slightly different point to the one Martin makes. But Martin is pointing out that philosophical claims about something that don't make that something more understandable are not good claims SIMPLY BECAUSE THEY EXPRESS SOMETHING EVERYONE WOULD AGREE TO.

I have already pointed out that I believe Wittgenstein's reference to non-controversiality (as found in paragraph 128) is NOT to that kind of claim at all. And I've further noted that Wittgenstgein, himself, left these specific notions out of his later work done for publication.

> I would add that these quotes also show that Martin does see ways of reading Wittgenstein that don't have him saying controversial things. He just rekects those interpretations. For bad reasons.
>

I think his reason is a good one and that your assessment of it is mistaken (and note that I am not simply gainsaying you here, I have gone to great lengths above to give my reasons.

> Now, responding to some remaining points.
>

> <snip>

> It is helpful to distinguish between what I'll call "truisms" (those familiar and simple truths with which no one would argue and which could not constitute "theses", i.e. which are not contentious, but of which we might "assemble reminders", as per PI 128 and surrounding remarks) and what some call "hinges" (those beliefs with which _On_Certainty_ is concerned).
>
> The verbal _expression_ of a "hinge" may have the appearance of a "truism" but it may also be nonsense outside of very special circumstances. A "truism" is not nonsense. A "truism" may seem beyond question but "your mileage may vary", as they say.
>

An interesting point.

> For example, if I point out that the game of poker incorporates an element of randomness and an element of concealment, while the game of chess involves neither, those are "truisms". But they are not "hinges". Doubting such things would not need to throw much else into doubt. They are not a "bedrock".
>

What do those cases have to do with my point that some things are uncontroversial while not obvious while other things are uncontroversial AND obvious and that the former are interesting from a philosophical point while the lkatter are not?

> PI 128 is not making a logical point, a la OC, about what it makes sense to question or claim to know. It is making a methodological recommendation about the sorts of assertions that have a place in the practice of (his style of) philosophy.
>

Again, what has that to do with my point? Granted that they are different claims (after all it would be awful if everything Wittgenstein said simply made the same point!), I am still asking what are we to take 128 to mean? You say it's a recommendation, not a point or claim. Yet it is phrased like a simple declarative senstence. Why shouldn't we consider how it relates to the truth of the things it seems to reference? To do so, it helps to look at the context which, of course, is what I have been proposing all along.

> The example "truisms" provides a nice segue to another point. I may assemble various truisms like those above in hopes that you would arrive at the conclusion, "So, despite what I thought, maybe there is no one element shared by all and only those activities we call 'games'!" and perhaps even, "So, many of the words we use may not have all their uses united by a set of necessary and sufficient conditions!"
>

> This process of assembling reminders might be compared to an argument. Nevertheless, I might not insist on the conclusion. And in fact, no such assembling of reminders would actually prove that someone really clever couldn't somehow come up with a "perfect" definition of "game".
>

Again, what is your point? I wasn't making an argument about any of these issues, merely citing certain facts and making certain claims based on interpretations I offered, AND I was asking, of course, if we oughtn't to look into the notion presented by 128 in more depth. You then converted this into an actual argument about something (my alleged claiming that we argue?) and now here we are with you telling me something about Wittgenstein's thinking that you (presumably) think I don't know. This is a very strange journey!

> At most, between such truisms and the simile about "family resemblances" (showing how such definitions may be quite unnecessary after all) my interlocutor might be persuaded to look at things differently. But if she insists, "Still, they must have something in common!" I may have to relent. Insisting she arrive at the conclusion I wish would constitute advancing a thesis.
>
>
> Calling this method "argument" could be misleading.

As with most words "argument" has a range of uses, from the arguments lawyers make in briefs to the argument between two motorists involved in an auto accident to the arguments of logical discourse, etc. What we have been doing here in this thread falls most closely into the realm of the motorists I suspect.

<snip>

>
> Regarding the comments about "theories" in relation to "theses", I take "theories" to be related, but with further connotations of "conjecture" or of an analogy with scientific theories, i.e. as revealing some hidden underlying structure, e.g. to propositions,as in Russell's Theory of Definite Descriptions or the nature of predication, e.g. Russell's Theory of Types. I choose these examples because no one would accuse Russell of trying to do natural
> science in putting forth these theories.

I think a case can be made that Wittgenstein had precisely Russell's type of theorizing in mind when he opposed theorizing in philosophy, i.e., making the mistake of applying the methods of science to the realm of conceptual clarification.

> Wittgenstein's concern is wider than the the pretensions and wild speculations of the armchair "scientist" or the traditional metaphysician. Most philosophers in the classic period of analytic philosophy would take issue with their kind. But Wittgenstein fought against the temptation to "theorize" even in the way that Russell theorized, though most analytic philosophers would deem that sort of theorizing perfectly appropriate.
>

Of course.

> Finally, at the risk of losing focus even more, I wanted to comment on your remarks about your experiences with Zen Buddhism
>
> > Buddhism is a little trickier. The kind I was involved in,
> > Zen, eschews all doctrine and yet it involves its
> > practitioners dutifully sitting in meditation in order to
> > liberate themselves from the karmic cycle of death and
> > rebirth. If one doesn't believe in rebirth after death, then
> > what is the point of pursuing a practice to free yourself
> > from it?
>
> Are you asking rhetorically?
>

Yes but not without a point.

> Answers to your question can be found within Zen tradition itself, in the "Five Ways of Zen":
>
> Bonpu zazen is practiced solely for mental relaxation and physical health. Gedo zazen is practiced for self-control toward moral improvement (even if one's morality is, e.g. Confucian), or toward improvement of skills such as martial or fine arts, or the cultivation of magical powers. Sojo zazen is practiced to personally escape the cycle of rebirth (the Arhat ideal), Daijo zazen is practiced to achieve enlightenment toward the liberation of all sentient beings (the Bodhisattva ideal), and Saijojo zazen is to
> realize the buddha-nature in all appearances in the here and now.

All forms of Buddhism, including Zen Buddhism, are practiced to attain liberation. Otherwise it is not Buddhism since the practice is based on the narrative of the experiences of Guatama Buddha who left the world of material things and spent twenty years seeking enlightement via all the different traditions accessible to him in his day. When he attained enlightenment he is said to have been liberated. Liberation is defined differently in different traditions, of course, and there have been developments in the modern world that seek to emphasize other aspects of the practice, especially in Zen which specifically eschews dogma and metaphysics. But practicing for improving one's health or one's martial skills, etc., is all considered part of the path of illusion each practitioner must first travel before attaining the liberation of the Buddha.

Even Zen, while explicitly excluding reliance on dogma and metaphysics as it does, operates (is practiced) within a particular milieu that includes a belief system. It can be argued that the point of Zen is to break out of the belief system but, to seek THAT end, one has to be held by that belief system first. There's no point in breaking free of what doesn't bind one.

By the way, the idea of using Buddhism of any form as a gateway to magical powers as you reference above is clearly a corruption of the original teachings of the Buddha. This is not to say there are not some forms like this or that those practicing Buddhism of this sort don't feel they are on the right path. It does, though, show that the human penchant for interpretation is rather large, given that such a belief directly contradicts the actual Buddha narrative.

> All of these are explicitly recognized as legitimate forms of the practice by Zen Buddhists, though the order in which I named them roughly corresponds to the esteem in which they are held by orthodox Buddhists.
>

See above.

> In explicitly recognizing the legitimacy of these other forms of practice, are they no longer the "serious religionists" you'd spoken of?
>

Suppose we came on a culture where the people all believed the myths and objects of their religious veneration were hogwash but did it anyway. Would we still call what they practiced "religion"? I guess we might. But is THAT what we mean when we speak of the kinds of religious practices that most religions and cultures consider religion? Could a society of atheists that always pretended they were believers, to one another as well as to outsiders, be possible? And if possible, would we think of them as religious in the sense that non-atheist practitioners of a religion think makes one religious?

SWM

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3b.

Re: Reading Wittgenstein, was Wittgenstein on Religious Belief

Posted by: "J DeMouy" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sun Dec 6, 2009 7:49 pm (PST)



SWM,

If I attempted to point out and address each and every misrepresentation, false dilemma, or non sequitur in our discussion, I'd be engaged in a war of attrition. I'll address whatever I think worth my time and ignore the rest.

As I understand it, you want to distinguish between truisms that are indisputable and truisms that are obvious, pointing out that what is indisputable may not be obvious. You also want to favor a reading of Wittgenstein that has him saying indisputable things but not obvious ones.

Something indisputable but that we tend to forgot has a point. Something simply obvious has no point whatsoever. And we shouldn't read Wittgenstein as simply pointless.

Is that a fair summary?

If I understand you correctly here, then what you're saying makes very good sense. And it has some prima facie plausibility as a defense of Martin against my charges. I'd even say that I agree with your position, though with some caveats..

But first, for what it's worth, having previously pointed out all the things I don't consider good arguments, let me say that this actually is a good argument. And it directly addresses my point, as your remarks in previous posts have not.

Now, the caveats:

1. Even where all are in agreement, what was obvious to one individual may have have been noticed or may have been forgotten by another.

2. What is obvious to people in one group, at one place and time, may not be obvious to another group at a different place and time.

3. What is obvious in one context may be forgotten in another, as when someone repairing a car does not forget that machine parts can warp and break but does forget while doing philosophy and using machine metaphors (PI 193)

4. It is not always apparent, even after the fact, whether a point was really obvious to someone. One person may be more reluctant to admit, "That hadn't occurred to me but of course you're right," or "I never noticed that!" than another.

5. Given points 1-4, a speaker cannot always know whether what she says will be obvious to her audience.

6. Given all of this, someone who professes to be dealing in indisputable truths may understandably sometimes state truths that might be taken as obvious as well.

Applying this to the case at hand, do not assume that observations about religion that may have been obvious to someone who grew up as a religious minority in the US in the latter half of the 20th century, where religious matters may be openly discussed and debated, and who has expored faiths of other cultures as well (like yourself?) would have been obvious to young men who grew up in the first half of the century and led sheltered lives before going off to Cambridge. And don't assume that a man who struggled with his cultural and religious identity and his faith, had religious experiences during a time of war, read various mystical and religious writers from various cultures, and so on, would necessarily have a perfectly clear idea of what would and would not be obvious to these sheltered young men. (Note, in regard to our discussion of biography/gossip: I consider this relevant because I can clearly connect the biographical information to the
interpretive question. It's simply obvious that Wittgenstein had good reason to think that his observations about religion might not be obvious to his audience, because he was coming from a very different place.)

Some further caveats:

7. As I was attempting to explain with the example of truisms leading to questioning whether "game" can be defined in terms of necessary and sufficient conditions, a serious of obvious (not just indisputable but obvious) truisms may lead to an insight that is not obvious. The individual observations may not merit argument or even discussion taken by themselves, but when these reminders are assembled, a deeper insight may emerge. And this can be compared to argument, though that may be misleading, because it is not a matter of conclusions following from the premisses.

(And note: the insight is not a generalization as we normally think of them: rather than "so all games involve an element of chance" or whatever, the response is "so there may be no one thing that all and only the activities we call 'games' have in common." We could even call this an "anti-generalization".)

One more comment on this point about obviousness: you also wondered what my point was in emphasizing the distinction between "truisms" and "hinges". Actually, this supports your point about "obvious" vs. "indisputable" truths. "Hinges" may be obvious, but reporting the "truism" that they are treated as such may not be (otherwise, there may have been less need for _On_Certainty_)

You made the perfectly reasonable request that I provide an example, outside of the disputed case of Martin, where Wittgenstein has wrongly been taken as making a more general claim than the text itself actually supports.

An example so common and scarcely in need of citations is when Wittgenstein is held to have said, "meaning is use", or worse "credited" with a "Use Theory of Meaning". I'm sure you've encountered this.

The source? PI 43, which says:

"For a large class of cases--though not for all--in which we employ the word "meaning" it can be defined thus: the meaning of a word is its use in the language.."

As we can see, he explicitly says "not for all" cases. He also says that it "can" be defined that way. A further point, even more subtle, is that Anscombe's mostly superb translation is problematic here. "Defined" is a translation of "erklaren" (forgive the missing umlauts) where she translates "erklart" (later in the same remark) as "explained". I would argue (as have others) that a better translation would be "...it can be explained thus..."

So, the obvious form of the mistake (the mistake of imputing a more contentious and more general claim than has actually been made) is ignoring the "not for all", though he makes it perfectly explicit, and assuming that he means to make a universal claim that can be refuted by a few counter-examples.

The less obvious way to make the same mistake is to neglect the word "can" and read it as "is" or perhaps "should be", so that he is claiming to present the correct definition, one that would compete with other definitions.

The more subtle and much more understandable (given the translation) form of the mistake is focus on the word "defined" and to assume that therefore any other way of explaining "meaning" must involve equivocation. (Significantly different definitions of a word mean different senses. But the same word might well be explained in different ways without changing the sense of the word.)

Read carefully, we have nothing so "grand" as a "theory of meaning", but instead a homely observation about one way that we can sometimes explain the word "meaning". And who would dispute that?

Regarding the "Five Ways of Zen", my point is that Zongmi, who presumably qualifies as a "serious religionist", in originating what has been a part of Zen Buddhist pedagogy for more than a millenium, answered your question about the point of continuing in a practice without holding many of the relevant beliefs.

Yes, doing so for the sake of martial arts or to acquire magical powers would be a perversion of the Buddha's teachings. And yes, even doing it for health or even for moral improvement would being "missing the point" from a Buddhist standpoint. And still, Zen Masters have recognized that they can be of service, even to nonbelievers (who may or may not eventually come to Buddhism) and nonbelievers have recognized the value of the practice even without converting. That you personally saw no point in continuing the practice in no way detracts from their experiences.

And given that, how much moreso for those who do see themselves as followers of the Buddha in other respects but who perhaps interpret various doctrines as guidelines in who to direct their thoughts, words, and deeds, rather than as theories about the nature of the universe. (And such an approach arguably has support in even the earliest suttas, where the Buddha and his disciples refused to affirm or deny a number of metaphysical theses on the ground that positions on them were irrelevant to practice, as well as in contemporary Buddhists such as Stephen Batchelor and Sri Satya Narayan Goenka.)

Consider this http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/mn/mn.063.than.html

You asked about people who "all believed the myths and objects of their religious veneration were hogwash but did it anyway." No, I would not call that "religion". But then, if someone seized upon a narrative as a guide not only to their behavior but to how they ought to feel and think in every aspect of their lives, even though they were indifferent to what historians or archeologists might have to say about the story, I wouldn't say they considered it "hogwash" either.

Jules: Man, I just been sitting here thinking.
Vincent: About what?
Jules: About the miracle we just witnessed.
Vincent: The miracle you witnessed. I witnessed a freak occurrence.
Jules: What is a miracle, Vincent?
Vincent: An act of God.
Jules: And what's an act of God?
Vincent: When, um ... God makes the impossible possible ... but this morning I don't think it qualifies.
Jules: Hey, Vincent, don't you see? That shit don't matter. You're judging this shit the wrong way. I mean, it could be that God stopped the bullets, or He changed Coke to Pepsi, He found my fucking car keys. You don't judge shit like this based on merit. Now, whether or not what we experienced was an "according to Hoyle" miracle is insignificant. What is significant is that I felt the touch of God. God got involved. (Pulp Fiction)

JPDeMouy

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3c.

Re: Reading Wittgenstein, was Wittgenstein on Religious Belief

Posted by: "J DeMouy" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sun Dec 6, 2009 11:42 pm (PST)



"An Austrian general said to someone: 'I shall think of you after my death, if that should be possible'. We can imagine one group who would find this ludicrous, another who wouldn't...."

Let's examine that. First, it is an example taken presumably from a story that Wittgenstein heard or read, perhaps during his time as a soldier in the First World War. Perhaps he was witness to it. He doesn't say. It sounds plausible enough that someone might have said some such thing, but is it important that he seems to be referencing an actual individual rather than offering a hypothetical or fictional example?

Perhaps this event had made an impression on him. Perhaps the "someone" was Wittgenstein himself. Perhaps there is an element of confessional here. We likely will never be able to do more than speculate.

Still, the Austrian general as our starting point does raise intriguing questions.

"We can imagine..." Of course we can. That much is obvious. But let's do so.

I don't think that things are as simple as, "Well, of course a nonbeliever would find it ludicrous, while a believer would not." That may be the initial temptation here, but I think we should resist the lure of the easy answer.

For one thing, the general said, "if that should be possible." While some staunch atheists would likely find that ludicrous, would an agnostic? Surely not!

One might even take the general for an agnostic himself.

And given that, we might also imagine that some Christians would find it ludicrous. If we are "saved by faith" as they say, and his faith seems hesitant at best, then some might say, "With that attitude, you'll be thinking from those thoughts from Hell!"

Perhaps there is no doubt in his mind about the afterlife, only his worthiness for it. Perhaps the general accepts some form of predestination.

Some of Wittgenstein's personal reflections on predestination.

"Could the concept of the punishments of hell be explained in some other way than by way of the concept of punishment? Or the concept of God´s goodness in some other way than by way of the concept of goodness?
If you want to achieve the right effect with your words, doubtless not.
Suppose someone were taught: There is a being who, if you do this & that, live in such & such a way, will take you after your death to a place of eternal torment; most people end up there, a few get to a place of eternal joy. - This being has picked out in advance those who are to get to the
good place; &, since only those who have lived a certain sort of life get to the place of torment, he has also picked out in advance those who are to lead that sort of life.
What might be the effect of such a doctrine?
Well, there is no mention of punishment here, but rather a kind of natural law. And anyone to whom it is represented in such a light, could derive only despair or incredulity from it. Teaching this could not be an ethical training. And if you wanted to train anyone ethically & yet teach him
like this, you would have to teach the doctrine after the ethical training, and represent it as a sort of incomprehensible mystery."

"Predestination: It is only permissible to write like this out of the most dreadful suffering -- and then it means something quite different. But for the same reason it is not permissible for someone to assert it as a truth, unless he himself says it in torment. --It simply isn't a theory.
--Or to put it another way: If this is truth, it is not the truth that
seems at first sight to be expressed by these words. It's less a theory
than a sigh, or a cry."

Must even the atheist find what the general says ludicrous? The general doesn't even say that it is possible, only entertain a possibility.

Or rather, the possibility is only entertained, but that is not all that the general is doing,

When I imagine this, I imagine (with no good reason?) a general expressing his concern for a soldier under his command. Could this not be the highest _expression_ of the responsibilities of a general for those he sends into battle: even my death will not end my responsibility for your welfare, and even in death, my concern for you will continue"?

Back to predestination. One can easily imagine a general who, having sought to lead a Christian life, but finding himself called to the bloody business of war - especially the senselessness of WWI - supposes himself damned to Hell. And yet, his concern is for his duty to those he commands.

I would certainly never call such a thing "ludicrous".

And I do not think that who would or would not are so easily sorted in our imaginations.

JPDeMouy

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3d.

Re: Reading Wittgenstein, was Wittgenstein on Religious Belief

Posted by: "J DeMouy" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Dec 7, 2009 12:24 am (PST)



It has occurred to me (again, with no good reason?) that perhaps the "someone" to whom the general addressed his remarks was Paul Wittgenstein and the general was the one to whom Paul served as aide-de-camp on the Italian front after his release (right arm amputated) from a Siberian prison camp.

This would fit both L. Wittgenstein's knowledge of this intimate conversation and his reluctance to mention the source - not wishing to break his brother's trust.

And the general's concern for this young man whose once-promising career as a concert pianist had been seemingly ruined would certainly make sense. As an older man, knowing whatever would come of him, he would leave behind young men like Paul to carry on despite their wounds, might well have said something like that.

Of course, this is all wildly speculative. And it is but one way of "fleshing out" such a remark. My point though is that it behooves us to reflect in this way, to consider these remarks in all their particularity, rather than to rush to draw some moral - or worse, some "theory" - from these remarks of Wittgenstein's. He wants us to work on these comments and to let them work on us and through this to consider matters - in this case, religious belief - in ways we might not otherwise have considered.

JPDeMouy

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4a.

Re: [C] Reading Wittgenstein, was Wittgenstein on Religious Belief

Posted by: "kirby urner" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sun Dec 6, 2009 10:45 am (PST)



On Fri, Dec 4, 2009 at 11:08 PM, J DeMouy <jpdemouy@rocketmail.com> wrote:

<< SNIP >>

> It is helpful to distinguish between what I'll call "truisms" (those familiar and simple truths with which no one would argue and which could not constitute "theses", i.e. which are not contentious, but of which we might "assemble reminders", as per PI 128 and surrounding remarks) and what some call "hinges" (those beliefs with which _On_Certainty_ is concerned).
>
> The verbal _expression_ of a "hinge" may have the appearance of a "truism" but it may also be nonsense outside of very special circumstances.  A "truism" is not nonsense.  A "truism" may seem beyond question but "your mileage may vary", as they say.
>

I'm finding these remarks interesting (more so than the rebuttal of
Martin's specific argument, as I've simply not participated in the
exegesis of that essay (didn't read it closely, only skimmed)).

The word "truism" comes to us with lots of connotations, not the least
of which is that a truism is somehow "true". There's also the flavor
of "vacuous and empty" at least in some language games i.e. one might
accuse someone of "indulging in truisms" where a legitimate response
to a truism is something like "so what?" or "you haven't said anything
factual" ("tautologies" tend to be dismissed in the same way). Tthis
is the kind of archeology of ordinary language that I consider
consistent with the PI's investigatory approach.

> For example, if I point out that the game of poker incorporates an element of randomness and an element of concealment, while the game of chess involves neither, those are "truisms".  But they are not "hinges".  Doubting such things would not need to throw much else into doubt.  They are not a "bedrock".
>

Philosophy has this embedded distinction between "empirical
statement", which in Tractarian terms is a picture of the facts, a
proposition with truth value (based on its matching or not matching
the facts), whereas a "tautology" (which is akin to a truism) is a way
of "making sense" that's neither supported nor refuted by "the facts
on the ground" as it were (world = ground). Note that I say "akin"
and by your example above a truism might be more an empirical
statement (verifiable, could be wrong) that we all agree with because
it is empirically true (not just because it makes sense to say in some
grammatical sense).

In ordinary literate discourse, people will say "that's just an empty
tautology" sometimes. The typical example from the literature: "all
bachelors are unmarried" (simply a reinforcement of definitions, like
saying "all balls are round" -- then we could argue whether "round"
means "spherical" as clearly the NFL style of football is more
elongated and oblate, but still "round" we might argue).

> PI 128 is not making a logical point, a la OC, about what it makes sense to question or claim to know.  It is making a methodological recommendation about the sorts of assertions that have a place in the practice of (his style of) philosophy.
>

I tend to agree, yet I think in allowing theses to remain
uncontentious or not a point of argument, he's inevitably bringing
"theses" into closer proximity with both "truism" and "tautology" and
this logical distinction between empirical and non-empirical does
enter, at least through the back door.

Here I would link to his "justifications (or reasons) come to an end"
meme. If it makes no sense to contradict something, then to assert
"belief" in that something also borders on nonsense. A "hinge" is
less a believed true fact than a pivot point for a grammatical
machinery. Shared "doing" more than shared "seeing" is a basis for a
"form of life" in the OC sense.

To this last point I would link Karen Armstrong's observations of
Protestantism versus some other religious traditions, in that the
former puts a premium on shared beliefs, agreements in theses,
recitation of shared dogmas, whereas many other religions (according
to Karen) are much more about sharing daily disciplines and habits --
somewhat irrespective of adhering to shared statements of faith.

Indeed, when it comes to beliefs, some traditions encourage strong
debate and contention as a way to keep any such formal apparatus self
adapting and updating i.e. in every age we must "rehash" or "hash out"
through a process of argument based in whatever rules (I'm thinking of
the rabbinical tradition, of which Jesus was very much a part).

As a practicing Quaker with on-line journals (a part of my practice),
I find Karen's arguments useful for putting some distance between
Quakerism and mainstream Protestantism. The former is less anchored
in "credos" or "beliefs" and so is more like Zen in some respects.

> The example "truisms" provides a nice segue to another point.  I may assemble various truisms like those above in hopes that you would arrive at the conclusion, "So, despite what I thought, maybe there is no one element shared by all and only those activities we call 'games'!" and perhaps even, "So, many of the words we use may not have all their uses united by a set of necessary and sufficient conditions!"
>
> This process of assembling reminders might be compared to an argument.  Nevertheless, I might not insist on the conclusion.  And in fact, no such assembling of reminders would actually prove that someone really clever couldn't somehow come up with a "perfect" definition of "game".
>

I find "assembling reminders" a useful trope and find many authors
using that as a form a building a theory or network of associations.
What I think of as a "mindset" is akin to Sean's notion of "cue cards"
in that we're used to developing "chains of cues" i.e. trains of
thought, where the segues are not in the nature of "iron clad logical
switches" (as if we had no choice in the matter) but in the nature of
reminders, mnemonic conventions, habits.

Now that we have the Web, it's easy to describe mindsets in terms of
hyperlinks and networks of web pages i.e. you can visualize a mindset
as a convexity inside of which a thinking "bounces around" without
escaping (until maybe the bubble bursts i.e. mindsets come with a
"time to live" or "half-life" -- sometimes relatively short next to
those "for the ages").

To practice philosophy in a Wittgensteinian manner requires developing
some new habits of thought and Wittgenstein's writing is
self-conscious of this didactic responsibility i.e. the author
consciously designs interconnecting pathways linking "rule following"
to "language games", "meaning" to "seeing according to an
interpretation" and so forth.

Setting up this infrastructure, designing a "track system" involves
developing concepts through use, more than through plunking down some
formal definition and saying "there, that's the meaning". In other
words, it's through his usage of the term "language game" that we come
to appreciate its sense, not through some simple enumeration of its
possible meanings, as one might find in a dictionary.

>
> JPDeMouy
>
>

Kirby

--
>>> from mars import math
http://www.wikieducator.org/Digital_Math
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4b.

Re: [C] Reading Wittgenstein, was Wittgenstein on Religious  Belief

Posted by: "J DeMouy" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sun Dec 6, 2009 4:26 pm (PST)



K

Thanks for chiming in!

> The word "truism" comes to us with lots of connotations,
> not the least
> of which is that a truism is somehow "true".  There's
> also the flavor
> of "vacuous and empty" at least in some language games i.e.
> one might
> accuse someone of "indulging in truisms" where a legitimate
> response
> to a truism is something like "so what?" or "you haven't
> said anything
> factual" ("tautologies" tend to be dismissed in the same
> way).

And my use of "truism" is meant to reflect this. Consider this remark:

"The person with a `healthy human understanding´ who reads a
former philosopher thinks (and not without right): `Mere nonsense!´
If that person hears me, he thinks rightly, again `Nothing but
boring truisms!´" (TS 219 p.6)

Tthis
> is the kind of archeology of ordinary language that I
> consider
> consistent with the PI's investigatory approach.
>

Yes.

I've used "truisms" in scare quotes in part as a reminder that I am using the term to cover a specific sort of reminder that Wittgenstein sometimes makes and to contrast it with what are often called "hinges", though of course the ordinary meaning of "truism" is much wider.

>
> Philosophy has this embedded distinction between
> "empirical
> statement", which in Tractarian terms is a picture of the
> facts, a
> proposition with truth value (based on its matching or not
> matching
> the facts), whereas a "tautology" (which is akin to a
> truism) is a way

Certainly, in ordinary language calling a tautology a truism would be perfectly correct.

> of "making sense" that's neither supported nor refuted by
> "the facts
> on the ground" as it were (world = ground).  Note that
> I say "akin"
> and by your example above a truism might be more an
> empirical
> statement (verifiable, could be wrong) that we all agree
> with because
> it is empirically true (not just because it makes sense to
> say in some
> grammatical sense).

Yes. Again, contrasting "hinges" and "truisms" (in the restricted sense that I've been using), "12x12=144" would be a "hinge" but remarks about how people handle calculations, how they check calculations, that they do not test to make certain that the numbers don't rearrange themselves when they aren't looking, and so on, are "truisms". And again, "that is a tree" (standing in broad daylight in front of a tree that I've passed many times before) is a "proposition" expressing a certainty (a "hinge"), whereas the observation that people would only say such a thing under very special circumstances (as an _expression_ of an aesthetic feeling, "that's a magnificent tree!" or while doing philosophy. Or perhaps as an odd joke.) is a "truism".

>
> In ordinary literate discourse, people will say "that's
> just an empty
> tautology" sometimes.  The typical example from the
> literature:  "all
> bachelors are unmarried" (simply a reinforcement of
> definitions, like
> saying "all balls are round" -- then we could argue whether
> "round"
> means "spherical" as clearly the NFL style of football is
> more
> elongated and oblate, but still "round" we might argue).

Indeed.

> > PI 128 is not making a logical point, a la OC, about
> what it makes sense to question or claim to know.  It is
> making a methodological recommendation about the sorts of
> assertions that have a place in the practice of (his style
> of) philosophy.
> >
>
> I tend to agree, yet I think in allowing theses to remain
> uncontentious or not a point of argument, he's inevitably
> bringing
> "theses" into closer proximity with both "truism" and
> "tautology" and
> this logical distinction between empirical and
> non-empirical does
> enter, at least through the back door.

I think the point of PI 127 is that what I'm calling "truisms" are not properly called "theses". Because a thesis is something one defends or attacks. If no one would dispute them, they aren't really "theses" worthy of the name. That's what he means in denying one could advance theses in philosophy.

>
> Here I would link to his "justifications (or reasons) come
> to an end"
> meme.  If it makes no sense to contradict something,

I wouldn't say that it necessarily makes no sense to contradict a "truism" (in contrast to a "hinge") nor that it necessarily makes no sense to justify it. Only that typically it is unnecessary. But someone who'd never been to the UK or seen a photo of a pillar box would not know that they are typically bright red. Someone not acquainted with various games might never have heard of patience (or solitaire) or noughts and crosses (tic tac toe). Someone who'd never studied chess might question some of the comparisons. But they could check pretty easily. So his observations involving such things, while they are "truisms", are still open to questioning and checking.

> then to assert
> "belief" in that something also borders on nonsense.. 
> A "hinge" is
> less a believed true fact than a pivot point for a
> grammatical
> machinery.  Shared "doing" more than shared "seeing"
> is a basis for a
> "form of life" in the OC sense.

Yes.

The rest of what you wrote was definitely interesting, though I have nothing to add there, so I'll cut this short. Still, some interesting ways of looking at and describing Wittgensteinian philosophy.

JPDeMouy

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5a.

Re: [C] question for ABoncompagni

Posted by: "Anna Boncompagni" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sun Dec 6, 2009 12:35 pm (PST)



Hello J, thank you for your interest and... for your Italian!

Well I think there are more things put togheter in these issues.

The first and simplest is the change in our way of doing philosophy: afeter
W., in my opinion, we cannot think about a philosophical "theory" anymore,
since philosophy is much more an activity than a theory, and this, actually,
should change something also in academic teaching - I mean, making students
use their minds and reflect on the troubles of language is more important
then making them study traditional texts, for example.

The second is the change in our own lives. This is what truly interests me.
If you read something of W's life, as you certainly did, you realise the
deep connection that he felt between his work as a philosopher and his life.
Many episodes confirm this point, his refusal of the inheritage, his
decision to be a teacher or a gardener, his problems with the "cambridge way
of life". All this probably is not only a result of his philosophy but also
of his troubled character. But if you take the words you quoted, or also
"the solution of the problem that you see in life is a way of living that
makes the problem disappear" (Culture and value 1937), you get how deeply he
felt this. But I think that the deepest change is that, which allows you to
live your ordinary life, but with a new consciousness of what you are doing.
What W. wants is going back to the ordinary, without the "illness" of
philosophy, and only philosophy can take us there, it's like a medicine, or
better: a vaccine.

The third thing is the change in the world, in society, a change outside
ouselves. I don't think that W.'s philosophy may have a "political" or
"social" effect, nor intended to. At least, not insofar as you consider that
a change in your life does not imply a change in society. That's why - I
suppose - what we have previously considered can stay togheter with
"Philosophy leaves everything as it is".

Reading yuor email, I understand that maybe you think that also this third
point is possible, I mean that his philosophy suggests that we shouldn't be
commited to the status quo. Is this your opinion?

Potentially, given the importance of social activities in determining the
meaning of words, given that "What has to be accepted, the given, is forms
of life", we may be induced to think that a critique of the ordinary form of
life is possibile and requested. But W. doesn't seem to me to have such a
political point of view.

I'd like to know your and the other members' opinions about this, if you
like to continue this discussion.

Thank you
Anna

2009/12/5 J <jpdemouy@rocketmail.com>

> Gentile signora,
>
> Salve! Piacere di conoscerla.
>
> I wonder if you might be able to find the time to elaborate on something
> you wrote in your introduction. It's an issue that holds no small interest
> to me.
>
> "What personally attracts me is the fact that W. forces us to change
> completely our way of doing philosophy - and, also, I believe, our way of
> living."
>
>
5b.

Re: [C] question for ABoncompagni

Posted by: "J DeMouy" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sun Dec 6, 2009 2:50 pm (PST)



AB,

I am so glad you replied. And please, no more putting down your English. No one would know you were not a native speaker save for your use of "inheritage" where the English word would be "inheritance" (I mention this only because the isolated mistake stood out amid otherwise perfect English.)

I really like this: "it's like a medicine, or better: a vaccine."

Is that your own? It is so right! I think that often the notion of "philosophy as therapy" along with "philosophy as illness" seems to suggest the idea that what Wittgenstein has done is only of value to people who have already gotten entangled in these nets (to use a metaphor from his discussions of set theory). If we believe that, then the answer would be to abolish the study of philosophy completely, since it is only "sophistry and illusion" (Hume), stop those philosophers from spreading their disease, quarantine them.

But the disease(s) aren't unique to philosophers and they cannot be stopped so easily.

"We keep hearing the remark that philosophy really does not progress, that we are still occupied with the same
philosophical problems as were the Greeks. Those who say this however don't understand why it is so. It is
because our language has remained the same & keeps seducing us into asking the same questions. As long as there
is still a verb 'to be' that looks as though it functions in the same way as 'to eat' and 'to drink', as long as we still have
the adjectives 'identical', 'true', 'false', 'possible', as long as we continue to talk of a river of time & an expanse of
space, etc., etc., people will keep stumbling over the same cryptic difficulties & staring at something that no
explanation seems capable of clearing up." (CV)

A vaccination involves deliberately infecting someone with a weakened strain of a pathogen in order that they may develop their own resistance to a more harmful form. And in those terms, the idea of deliberately studying ideas that may be harmful makes perfect sense.

Regarding the status quo as it relates to Wittgenstein, I'll say this: critique too is part of our form of life. Criticism is a language game as much as any other, so to stifle that would not be "leaving everything as it is."

"The philosopher is not a citizen of any community of ideas. That is what makes him into a philosopher." (Z455) I take it that a "community of ideas" is not the same as "form of life", which would be absurd since of course a philosopher shares our form of life. I take "community of ideas" to be more a group of individuals united by an ideology. And a "citizen" is not merely a member but someone with a civic duty to protect and defend their community.

A philosopher has no such duty. She is not a partisan. But this means she is no more a partisan of reaction than a partisan of revolution. She is not out to uphold the status quo or to overturn it. Or rather, she is not out to defend the ideas of one faction or the other. She does her best to examine all their ideas without favor.

Practice is another matter. A philosopher may vote Labor and even urge her students to do so, as Wittgenstein did. She may even take up arms, as Wittgenstein also did, or support her country in other ways. She may expatriate for various reasons, including seeing value in another nation's way of life, as Wittgenstein did and considered doing again.

But she is not a polemicist or apologist for any ideology. She is not a propagandist.

George Thomson's remark about Wittgenstein views on Marxism, "He was opposed to it in theory, but supported it in practice," likely has some truth in it. In this era of "Theory", especially in academia in the US, we have "feminist theory", "critical race theory", "queer theory", and so on. My suspicion is that Wittgenstein would have assessed various aspects of theory, sorting nonsense from dubious claims from sound research, without regard to the agenda. But the idea of a field of study whose conclusions seem to be dictated by a social or political agenda would have been anathema to him. But he might support the substantive goals themselves wholeheartedly (or not, as the case may be).

JPDeMouy

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6.

[blog] John Ryle on Ludwig Wittgenstein

Posted by: "Squarespace Services" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sun Dec 6, 2009 5:07 pm (PST)



Sean Wilson <whoooo26505@yahoo.com> added John Ryle on Ludwig Wittgenstein:

During World War II when the Germans were regularly bombing Britain, Wittgenstein found it intolerable to teach philosophy. He wanted to assist with the civilian war effort. In September of 1941, he was able to arrange a lunch meeting with John Ryle about obtaining work at Guy´s Hospital where he could assist people in need. After meeting Wittgenstein, Ryle wrote a letter to his wife, saying ...

"He is one of the world´s most famous philosophers ...He wears an open green shirt and has a rather attractive face. I was so interested that after years as a Trinity don, so far from getting tarred with the same brush as the others, he is overcome by the deadness of the place. He said to me `I feel I will die slowly if I stay there. I would rather take a chance of dying quickly. And so he wants to work at some humble manual job in a hospital as his war-work and will resign his chair if necessary, but does not want it talked about at all. And he wants the job to be in a blitzed area. The works department are prepared to take him as an odd job man under the older workmen who do all the running repairs all over the hospital. I think he realizes that his mind works so differently to most people´s that it would be stupid to try for any kind of war-work based on intelligence. I have written to him tonight to tell him about this job but am not trying to persuade him unduly." 

Source: Ray Monk, The Duty of Genius, 431-432.

Dr. Sean Wilson, Esq.

<http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrs-blog/2009/12/6/john-ryle-on-ludwig-wittgenstein.html>

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it, but it's true

Group Charity

City Year

Young people who

change the world

Hollywood kids

in the spotlight

Their moms

share secrets

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