TLP 4.1122, that work's single reference to Charles Darwin: "Darwin's theory has no more to do with philosophy than any other hypothesis in natural science." True or false? The answer will perhaps involve analysing the way 'Darwin's theory' is scientific or non-scientific [or, in various aspects, both], as well as perhaps giving a model for 'Darwin's theory' ie. what it actually claims and what it does not. Cards on table:- the gist of the Popperian answer is that this TLP remark arguably reflects a mistaken understanding of the scientific status of 'Darwin's theory', though it needs to be immediately acknowledged that Popper in "Natural Selection and Its Scientific Status" [1977, Ch.19 in 'Popper Selections'] admitted "I too belong among the culprits" who have offered comments on Darwin's theory [or, perhaps better, neo-Darwinism - natural selection plus modern genetics] where something seems amiss eg. the claim that while virtually tautologous Darwinism is powerfully explanatory [?], or that while untestable it is of great scientific interest [?]. Donal In the basement Thinking about the government London ___________________________________________________________ WIN FREE WORLDWIDE FLIGHTS - nominate a cafe in the Yahoo! Mail Internet Cafe Awards www.yahoo.co.uk/internetcafes ------------------------------------------------------------------ To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html