I was reading J. L. Russo's account of Prince Metternich's famous dictum, "Prince Metternich was at the head of the congress. He was Austria's prime minister, and had called Italy 'a geographical expression.'" (Russo, _Italy_, p. 182) I wonder if the prince did not meant to say: (1) "Italy" is a geographical expression. rather than as he is often quoted as having said: (2) Italy is a geographical expression. In fairness to the prince, I grant it's difficult to mark the quotes in _oral speech_, but note that if he actually meant (1) he was being tautologous -- so perhaps he meant (2)? The distinction between object-language and meta-language is Russellian, and doubt whether the prince was familiar with _Introduction to the philosophy of mathematics_. Cheers, JL ------------------------------------------------------------------ To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html