I was reading a publication which (perhaps rather typically?) referred to Charles as 'the future king of England', or words to that effect. I was thinking. Literally, the monarch is 'monarch of the United Kingdom', not England (or Wales, or Scotland). But I was wondering if, as a matter of logic, it can be said that, say, Elizabeth, _is_ Queen of England, since she is Queen of the United Kingdom (and, as Gotlob Frege and other logicians would say, England falls within the _denotation_ of United Kingdom, or 'is part of' the United Kingdom). I wonder if the reluctance to say that the Queen is the Queen of England is a prejudice based on implicature or entailment? Sorry for vague wording, but hopefully you'll get my gist, Cheers, JL from the country where Evita once reigned. ------------------------------------------------------------------ To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html