M. Chase answers R. Paul's question: >I think you're referring to the first of three arguments for the >immortality of the soul in the Phaedo, the one that takes place from >70c-72e. The verb in question is *gignesthai*, and it does indeed recur >constantly in this passage. ------ In a previous note, I mentioned that the entry in Liddell-Scott (Greek Lexicon) for this is "gignomai", which is, of course, actually the _first_ person singular: "I become, I come into being" -- hardly a thing you -- or even Plato -- would say. This practice among classic scholars, of providing the entries of Greek and Latin verbs in the first person indicative is rather silly, and wonder who originated it -- I suppose someone who didn't know the first thing about either Greek or Latin (or both). The verbs should be given in the infinitive, and without that indicative first person unsubstantiated bias. This would have stressed less the divergence of opinion here between M. Chase and me. Cheers, JL ------------------------------------------------------------------ To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html