Philip M It is obvious that he was addressing Peter, and inferring that it was Satan in him that caused Peter to say the objectionable thing, "Lord, be it far from thee, this (the passion) shall not be unto thee. " I've noted this previously but haven't commented. The listener infers but the speaker implies. I think here you really mean that Jesus implied that it was Satan ... Oh! and shouldn't that be '... He was addressing ... '? The English religions seem to have sanctified the language of thee thou and thine.. Is this common to all nations.. eg do the germans say " thy kingdom come " ? I doubt it.. I seem to recall that German has about six forms of personal pronouns. I have felt for a long time that English is the poorer for having so few but especially the ambiguity which results from the absence thee, thou and thine. Paul D Get the name you always wanted with the new y7mail email address. www.yahoo7.com.au/y7mail