Nice post, Ron, but I hope Larry stops in to defend Quine on analyticity here...or Budd to defend Fodor. I actually think this paper would have been better if he'd attacked a more specific thesis, instead of trying to round up the whole century. If, for example, the thesis were precisely the Wittgensteinsian doctrine (I don't say whether W held it himself) that to understand a concept is NOTHING BUT to follow some set of (perhaps unspecifiable) rules, I think Fodor would have made serious headway. He hits on some good reasons against that, I think, but they won't QUITE work against the entire BCP clan. W --- In quickphilosophy@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, Ron Allen <wavelets@...> wrote: > > Hi Walter: > The members of Fodor's BCP society hold to some very extreme positions. I > have to think, possibly along with you and Neil, that he's not fairly > representing the other side's position. > For example, in 2(i) why must the group of inferences be listable? It's > clearly countably infinite, and it can't be listed; there aren't enough > elementary particles in the universe. Take any true proposition involving C; > call it P(C). Then P(C) | Q, where Q is anything whatever is a valid > inference from P(C). We'd have to list P(C) | Q, where Q is any proposition. > This is silly. The propositions that are empirically inferred in 2(ii) is > even larger, so that is an even sillier stipulation. Nobody who thinks things > like this could be called "bare bones" conceptually pragmatic. No, they're > carrying some real baggage. > So far, Fodor is not doing very well. Evidently, the argument hinges on > 2(iii). But, only orthodox Quineans are going to have a problem with this. > Grice and Strawson refuted Quine's argument against the analytic/synthetic > distinction, and all the BCPer has to do is assert the distinction. > How can you tell whether these things are true or false? > a. All bachelors are male.b. All bachelors are fat. > Quine admits that any person that is unmarried and male and adult is > therefore male. So, unless he allows definable predicates in 1st-order logic > like the rest of us logicians, but is not going to allow it in a natural > language (amazing: 1st-order logic is more expressive and more expansive than > natural language; more amazing: how did we ever learn 1st-order logic?) > So, Fodor's argument is unsound. It proceeds from one or more false premises. > Two of the premises, 2(i) and 2(ii)are obviously bogus, and no one advocates > them, so being able to reject them is irrelevant. > And, in any case, I don't see any argument that possession of the concept of > C as such avoids the pitfalls of Fodor's caricature BCP. > Hmmm...better to look at Fodor's other arguments. The obliteration of the > 20th century has only a 66% chance of success at this point. > Thanks!--Ron > > --- On Thu, 8/19/10, walto <calhorn@...> wrote: > > From: walto <calhorn@...> > Subject: [quickphilosophy] Fodor on Concepts II: First argument against BCP > To: quickphilosophy@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx > Date: Thursday, August 19, 2010, 4:28 PM > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > Â > > > > > > > > > > To take down concept pragmatism, Fodor first defines what he takes to > be a bare boned version of it, which he calls "BCP." Then he provides three > arguments against it: I'll discuss only the first. > > > > So, what, exactly, is BCP? Fodor says it's any theory according to which > "concept possession is constituted by" two epistemic capacities, that for > INFERRING and that for SORTING. Assuming again that concepts "can occur as > the constituents of thoughts" BCP holds that when a concept C is a > constituent of some thought T, T will have certain entailments as a result of > containing C. If, for example, someone eats a partridge, someone will have > eaten a bird, while if someone eats a frog, that won't be the case. The > thought that Smith is eating a partridge entails that Smith is eating a bird > in virtue of the thought's having the constituent PARTRIDGE. And, according > to BCP, a condition for possessing the concept C is that "one is disposed to > draw (or otherwise to acknowledge) some of the inferences" that thoughts have > in virtue of containing C. While it may be a necessary truth that for X to > be a partridge, X must be a bird, the entailments here need not > be necessary. For example, if it's widely known that all adult partridges > are bigger than a standard thimble, then it may be that one cannot have the > concept PARTRIDGE without inferring from "Smith ate a partridge" that Smith > ate something bigger than a standard thimble. > > > > Besides making at least some of the right inferences, a concept possessor > must according to BCP be able to do a bit of sorting. If one can't separate > the partridges from the frogs in a batch consisting of both animals, one > probably hasn't got either the concept PARTRIDGE, the concept FROG (or, I > guess, the concept DIFFERENT). It may be that we need to have both > inferential and sorting skills down to be said to have some concept. E.g., > to possess the concept PARTRIDGE we may need to be both "primitively > compelled" to infer from "X is a partridge" that X is an animal, and also be > able to reliably distinguish partridges from frogs. > > > > Fodor says that there are three basic objections to any such theory ("fatal > when taken separately" and "annihilating when taken together"). I'll deal > here only with the first basic objection, the so-called "analyticity > argument," which Fodor claims to be the most familiar of the three. I take > this argument to go as follows: > > > > 1. According to BCP, for any person S and concept C there are some > propositions that must be at least acquiesced to by S in order for S to have > C. > > > > 2. If (1), then either the particular group of inferences that S must at > least acquiesce to in order to possess C must either (i) be listable; (ii) > include EVERY proposition that may be validly (even if empirically) inferred > from a proposition including C; or (iii) involve all and only those > propositions that analytically follow from a proposition that includes C. > > > > 3. But (i) and (ii) are absurd and (iii) requires a sustainable > analytic/synthetic distinction. > > > > 4. There is no sustainable analytic/synthetic distinction. > > > > 5. Therefore BCP is false. > > > > In support of the absurdity of (3)(ii), Fodor notes that concepts are public: > lots of concepts are shared by lots of people. If (3)(ii) were true, Fodor > holds, no two people could share any concept C unless they shared all their > beliefs involving C. But, he says, "practically everybody has some eccentric > beliefs about practically everything" at some time or other so not only does > this sort of holism imply that no two people share the same concept, but even > that no single person is likely to share it at different times during his/her > life. (And for those who might want to do away with concept identity between > people in favor of concept similarity, Fodor refers them to a paper he wrote > with Lepore that he believes shows that to be hopeless as well.) > > > > Fodor calls "molecularism" the theory that some, but not ALL C-containing > inferences need be acquiesced to in order for C to be possessed, andâ?"while > he admits that the position has some initial plausibilityâ?"he claims it > depends on a sustainable analytic/synthetic distinction, since that is > necessary to tell us just which beliefs are "conceptually necessary" to C. > > > > According to Fodor, the best way to make the point against the > analytic/synthetic distinction is that "nobody has the slightest idea what > the truth markers for claims about analyticity could be; that nobody knows > what analyticity is, nobody can give clear account of what might make > ascriptions of analyticity true (/false)." Some have tried to base > analyticities on part/whole: e.g., it's analytic that bachelors are unmarried > simply because BACHELOR is nothing but some sort of combination of UNMARRIED > and MAN. But (a) the number of concepts that have parts has been vastly > overrated, and (b) there's no good reason to suppose that UNMARRIED isn't > really the derivative concept and BACHELOR is primitive. > > > > Another try has been made via "truth by convention." But even if linguistic > analyticities are plausibly taken to be conventional, how could conceptual > truths be? "Did somebody stipulate that the concept BACHELOR applies only to > men who are unmarried? If so, when and who was it, and how did he go about > it?" Furthermore, how could something be both "true by meaning alone" and > yet require some empirical fact to have at one time obtained? "Copper is a > metal" can't be analytically true if it requires it to be the case that > copper is a metal. > > > > And so, Fodor concludes, BCP is false. > > > > There seem to me to be a number of weak points in his argument here, the most > forceful one being that concept possession seems to me to be a fuzzier thing > than Fodor can admit. This isn't necessarily a matter of Smith's concept C > being only similar and not identical to Jones's, it's that the two people > have differential masteries of what may really be one and the same thing. > Having the concept PARTRIDGE need not be the same thing for all people in > order for PARTRIDGE itself to qualify as a single public concept. Those who > support BCP (as I guess maybe I do) and think that a sign of possession is > epistemic don't therefore hold that the concept itself just IS the mastery or > indeed any epistemic or dispositional element. > > > > But, of course, Fodor has other, and perhaps more powerful, arguments against > BCP. I leave their exposition to Ron. > > > > W >