--- On Fri, 3/19/10, jrstern <wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote: > Can you show us who ever said syntax *is* either > constitutive or sufficient for semantics? Stuart seems to think it is. Searle gives us these three axioms: A1) Programs are formal (syntactic). A2) Minds have mental contents (semantics). A3) Syntax by itself is neither constitutive of nor sufficient for semantics. It follows from these three axioms that: C1) Programs are neither constitutive of nor sufficient for minds. Stuart doesn't like C1 and A1 and A2 look bullet-proof so he disputes A3. But I consider A3 no less bullet-proof than A1 or A2. -gts ========================================== Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/