[Wittrs] What Is Ontological Dualism?
- From: Joseph Polanik <jpolanik@xxxxxxxxx>
- To: wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
- Date: Sun, 11 Apr 2010 19:08:12 -0400
iro3isdx wrote:
>Joseph Polanik wrote:
>>>Right. But he never does explain what solely by virtue of running
>>>a program is supposed to actually mean.
>>perhaps; but, if so, that leaves the field open for you to define
>>what you mean by 'solely by virtue of running a program'. then
>>using your definition (and without focusing on the CPU) ...
>There's no need for me to define "solely by virtue of running a
>program," as that is not an important distinction for me. The focus on
>the CPU comes from focus in Searle's argument.
where else would a program execute but in the CPU (or, some processing
unit if there are more than one)?
>>..., would you explain how running a program could enable a computer
>>to experience an afterimage?
>Strictly speaking, it is not up to me to explain that.
you were the one claiming that the CRA did not prove anything about
whether the 'system' experienced subjective experiences.
>Additionally, I'm not quite sure what you mean by "afterimage".
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Afterimage
>Could you get appropriate cognitive behavior, solely by virtue of
>following the principles of epistemology?
I doubt it.
Joe
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