Gordon Swobe wrote: >It seems to me that many philosophers of the materialist persuasion >(e.g., Dennett) cannot see that as materialists we can reduce mental >phenomena scientifically to third-person descriptions while preserving >their subjective reality -- and that we can do this *without* embracing >dualism. >Following Searle, we can reduce mental phenomena to third-person causal >descriptions without reducing them ontologically. In this case, we can >tell a complete scientific story about the neurology of pain while >recognizing that our epistemic reduction to objective scientific facts >does not entail an ontological reduction. >Though causally reducible to third-person descriptions, mental >phenomena also have an irreducible first-person ontology. And we can >accept this brute fact of existence without adding any metaphysical >baggage about non-physical properties or substances! suppose scientists come up with a complete description of how the brain produces consciousness; and, that everyone is satisfied that this description is a causal explanation. do we *know* that this causal explanation will count as a causal reduction; and, if so, how? looking forward to the day that this explanation is first announced, I can easily imagine pondering my response. do I say "now I know what I am reduced to" or do I say "now I know what I have emerged from"? Joe -- Nothing Unreal is Self-Aware @^@~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~@^@ http://what-am-i.net @^@~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~@^@ ========================================== Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/