As I've written to Joe, it seems to me that we can characterize a view as dualistic iff it entails a view of the mental as non-physical/immaterial. Searle's philosophy does not meet that criterion and you have not shown me that Dennett proves otherwise. In fact you have not shown me that Dennett even claims otherwise. I understand Dennett argues against what he calls Cartesian *materialism*, a position distinct from both Cartesian substance dualism and property dualism. I wonder if Dennett considers Searle's view an example of Cartesian materialism. -gts ========================================== Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/