--- In Wittrs@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, Joseph Polanik <jPolanik@...> wrote: > My argument is that formalism failed. The Hilbert program failed. I'm not inclined to see that as the same as "formalism failed." But even if formalism failed, why would that have any implications for Searle's claim that syntax is not sufficient for semantics? Regards, Neil ========================================= Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/