[C] [Wittrs] Digest Number 131

  • From: WittrsAMR@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • To: WittrsAMR@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: 5 Feb 2010 10:58:19 -0000

Title: WittrsAMR

Messages In This Digest (12 Messages)

Messages

1.1.

Is Homeostasis the Answer?  (Re: Variations in the Idea of Conscious

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Thu Feb 4, 2010 7:13 am (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "iro3isdx" <xznwrjnk-evca@...> wrote:

> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@> wrote:

>
> > But the issue that I am addressing and have always been addressing,
> > even when asking your for explication of your reason for thinking
> > AI is on the wrong track, is not what cognitive agents do but how
> > they come to be in a world chock full of apparently inanimate things.

>
> But you only see that as a puzzle because of how you are looking at it.
> Even the most primitive biological organism has more intentionality than
> a computer will ever have.

That is an assumption and as long as you begin with it then it stands to reason that the approach I am suggesting makes sense seems to make no sense to you. The issue is what is it about intentionality or any of the other features of consciousness that make them what they are. We can examine what it means to be intentional (etc.) for our part, to think ABOUT things. We can say that it doesn't look like that feature is present, say, in certain other creatures, or is present in the way it is with us, etc. But then one can say well there is still something in another creature that is like that feature in me, but my computer doesn't have it. But if what it is is something computers COULD have if they could be brought to do the same things the other creatures are doing, or we are doing, then why shouldn't they have it?

You've said homeostasis is at the bottom of it and that no computer has homeostasis, and that simply producing a virtual homeostatic state in a computer won't suffice to do the same thing as really having it. But you haven't shown or described just what it is about homeostasis that gets us to intentionality though you've said homeostasis drives pragmatic choosing drives perception drives the features we call "being conscious" -- or something to this effect -- albeit without showing why, if we could produce these features another way, we couldn't also get consciousness AND you haven't shown the mechanics of this transmission of causes actually produces those features.

Every time I ask you to answer these questions you tell me I am misunderstanding you or talking about something else. Now it may be I am misunderstanding you. But if I am talking about something else it's because you are talking about something different than I am asking about.

My question is and remains how does consciousness come to be in the world and, since brains appear to be the requisite physical entity for consciousness to occur, what do they do that makes it happen and could what they do be done by something else (e.g., computers). To this your answer is finally "Even the most primitive biological organism has more intentionality than a computer will ever have".

But isn't this basically an assertion (perhaps even an assertion of faith) because, absent an understanding of the mechanism that makes consciousness happen (which is what I keep asking about), we have no idea whether your statement is actually true?

> Sure, an amoeba or a plant is not conscious.
> But it is still very different from computers.
>

Some would dispute that. I am agnostic on the subject of it being different in a relevant way myself.

>
> You are trying to look at every thing as mechanism.

Well it's obvious that the brain is a physical thing and the brain does something (or lots of things) and that some of what the brain does manifests as being conscious in the entity in which the brain is situated. The options, in our usual categories of thought are: the brain merely correlates with the occurrence of consciousness, albeit closely (consciousness and brains somehow co-exist), or the one causes the other.

There is no reason to think the consciousness conjures or imagines the brain into existence but there is reason, based on what we generally believe we know of the world, to think the brain brings consciousness into existence.

Now if you want to call that assuming a mechanism I am certainly in agreement (and often use the word "mechanism" myself for this relation). However, it is possible, given how we use "mechanism" in ordinary language (i.e., to refer to mindless physical interactions), to get a wrong picture here, i.e., to think only of mechanical contrivances in some Rubegoldbergian picture of things or just to think of a dumb automobile engine for instance. Of course, by "mechanism" I mean any physical interactions from chemistry to the atomic and sub-atomic behaviors of particles in physics. On THAT picture everything that happens in the universe has a physical explanation.

The only question is whether we should include the occurrence of consciousness in that "everything" or whether we must, by excluding it, expand our idea of what makes up the universe.

>And in a way, the
> greater puzzle is that you (and others) would do that. As best I can
> tell, the only actual mechanisms that exist are human artifacts. So this
> whole idea of trying to reduce everything to mechanism seems foolish.
>

Ah, then you can see, perhaps, why I find your use of "mechanism" problematic given what I have just said above. I don't mean by the term what you apparently mean by it, namely nothing but "human artifacts"!

>
>
> > Yes, but the issue at hand is how do we get these kinds of sentient
> > agents, that is entities with a subjective point of view, entities
> > that experience. It's not what THEY do but how they come to be that
> > AI, and cognitive science generally, addresses.
>
>
> Yet it seems to me that AI and most of cognitive science make little
> effort to address that question. What I more commonly see is people
> trying to explain away that question, and to convince themselves that it
> is all mechanism.

If your idea of "mechanism" is as constrained as you have described it above, "human artifacts" only, then it would not be surprising that you would make this mistake. But biological functioning is as mechanical (on my broader view of "mechanism") as anything else, even if they aren't manmade!

> But, if you look around the world, the only
> mechanisms are our own created artifacts, so it seems foolish to try to
> explain everything as mechanism.
>
>

This looks like a word meaning problem to me. No one I know who claims that brains do something that produces consciousness thinks that they are talking about things like automobile engines and the like. Brains are biological machines, not manmade, with a different genesis which could well include very different underlying principles of operation. Still brains can work or fail to work and when they work they are doing things in the world. Now it's my turn to invoke the word "magic" and say there is nothing magical about brains on such a view. They are biological entities and, insofar as they do some things and not other things, they are machines. They just aren't manmade artifactual machines. They are a good deal more complex and they are naturally occurring and they operate in ways we have yet to understand.

>
> > That is, I asked you to explain what you once told me on another
> > list, that the key to understanding how minds come to be (not
> > came to be as in evolutionarily history!) is in understandinding
> > the homeostasis of living systems (which, presumably, computers
> > don't have).
>
>
> It seems that I cannot explain it. You do not recognize the existence
> of the kind of problem that homeostasis can solve, and I have been
> singularly unsuccessful in my attempts to introduce you to those
> problems.
>
>

That may be. While I will disagree with your statement that I don't recognize the existence of the kind of problem you say homeostasis can solve (I have never given any evidence here or anywhere of denying that living organisms are closed systems engaged in various self-sustaining functions including defense from external incursion, ingestion of fuel to maintain internal equilibrium and self propagation), I do think that we are addressing different questions.

I am interested in how minds are brought into existence, each time one is, and what that says about what minds are, while you seem to be more interested in the evolutionary progression that gets certain kinds of systems to the stage where they develop the consciousness we associate with having a mind.

I don't deny the latter question or claim disinterest in it. I just want to note that it isn't the question I have been addressing. Insofar as you once said that AI is wrong because it fails to take homeostasis into account, you need to show how taking homeostasis into account leads to a different explanation of what consciousness is and how it is brought about in the world than the one AI, and theses that support it, provides.

But insofar as you talk about something else instead, you aren't doing much to support your criticisms of AI.

Now AI may well be the wrong way to go. But you told me you had a reason why it was wrong and that the reason lay in homeostasis. So you need to say how homeostasis brings consciousness about (not in terms of evolutionary history but in terms of each individual conscious entity during the period of that entity's own existence)!

>
> > At least Dennett has an account, whether one chooses to say it can't
> > work because it is premised on the abstraction of computational
> > programming or not.
>
>
> Whether or not it is based on particular abstractions is not what
> matters. The learning method proposed for AI is wholly inadequate to
> account for human learning.
>
>
> Regards,
> Neil
>
>
> =========================================

You could be right about AI being wrong in terms of the learning method. Hawkins makes the same claim (though you also reject Hawkins). But at least Hawkins offers an alternative (pattern matching, retention and recapitulation via a relatively simple algorithm in a complex array of cells in the brain in lieu of an agglomeration of massively complex algorithms as AI proponents propose). Thus far all you have said is that the homeostasis of closed systems (of which living systems are the obvious, if not necessarily the exclusive, example) leads to pragmatic choosing which leads to perception (as the imposition of pre-existing forms on raw sensation) and this somehow leads to the features we associate with being conscious.

As you know, I have been intrigued by your claim since you first broached it and all my efforts in our ongoing discussions have been directed at getting from you the mechanical specifics (how each of the things you've cited works to bring about the next thing in the chain and how this finally leads to the occurrence of minds). But you seem to want to disregard mechanical explanations entirely on the grounds that this implies something artifactual made by humans.

THAT picture seems to me to be based on a misunderstanding of how I am using the term "mechanical". Now if you insist that, because of such a picture, NO mechanical explanation can be given, what is finally left?

Are you saying that consciousness just happens when brains reach a certain point of development? Is it your contention that consciousness is a new thing brought into the universe in some other-than-mechanical way? Or that it is always here, somehow riding along side the physical parts of the universe though, perhaps, it isn't always recognized as being here?

If you have no mechanism to give us to explain how minds occur in brains, how brains produce consciousness, then it seems to me you are finally resting your case on a dualist presumption. Now I know "dualism" is sometimes taken as a dirty word. I assure you I don't mean it like that. I just think that one should be clear about where one stands. If nothing in the physical universe suffices to make consciousness, then consciousness is a separate thing following its own trajectory in which case lots of things, including ghosts in machines, would seem to be possible. Is that where you want to go?

SWM

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1.2.

Is Homeostasis the Answer?  (Re: Variations in the Idea of Conscious

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Thu Feb 4, 2010 8:31 am (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "jrstern" <jrstern@...> wrote:

> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "iro3isdx" <xznwrjnk-evca@> wrote:
> >
> > > But the issue that I am addressing and have always been
> > > addressing, even when asking your for explication of your
> > > reason for thinking AI is on the wrong track, is not what
> > > cognitive agents do but how they come to be in a world chock
> > > full of apparently inanimate things.
>
> Is this a special case?
>
> Do you worry about how cats come to be in a world chock full of non-cats? Hot things in a world chock full of cold things?
>

I said this, Josh, not Neil (in case you are confusing the two of us in your question above). My issue, in saying it, was not to wonder how there could be minds in the world at all but to wonder how minds happen in the world, given the evident physical and, therefore, apparently inanimate, nature of this world in which minds occur?

That is, my "how" was not a metaphysical "how" (how can things come to be, whether particular things or things in general) but a scientific one, i.e., what is it about some physical things that produces the subjectness of minds that have manifestly come to be in this world?

The rest of what you wrote (which followed the above) seems to be directed to Neil's own words so I won't intrude in that discussion. I just wanted to make sure that 1) if you WERE responding to me, I didn't ignore it or 2) if you thought this was something Neil had said you were not unfairly tarring him with a brush better meant for me.

SWM

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1.3.

Is Homeostasis the Answer?  (Re: Variations in the Idea of Conscious

Posted by: "jrstern" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Thu Feb 4, 2010 9:22 am (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@...> wrote:
>
> > Is this a special case?
> >
> > Do you worry about how cats come to be in a world chock full of non-cats? Hot things in a world chock full of cold things?
>
> I said this, Josh, not Neil (in case you are confusing the two of us in your question above). My issue, in saying it, was not to wonder how there could be minds in the world at all but to wonder how minds happen in the world, given the evident physical and, therefore, apparently inanimate, nature of this world in which minds occur?

Yes, Stuart, I'm clear it was you saying this.

But I wanted to take issue with it, and Neil had responded without
taking issue with it, so I responded to both separately.

> That is, my "how" was not a metaphysical "how" (how can things come to be, whether particular things or things in general) but a scientific one, i.e., what is it about some physical things that produces the subjectness of minds that have manifestly come to be in this world?

But the question is, whether there are ANY different issues
regarding mind, that do not also concern any mereological or
phenomenal entities.

This is a methodological question Fodor spend extensive time
on, what questions of "mind" are really questions of scientific
or philosophical methods more generally? Because there does seem
to be a tendency to treat any questions of mind as if they were
specific to minds only - as I suppose a fisherman considers all
questions of the world in the context of fish.

Josh

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1.4.

Is Homeostasis the Answer?  (Re: Variations in the Idea of Conscious

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Thu Feb 4, 2010 11:02 am (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "jrstern" <jrstern@...> wrote:
>
> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@> wrote:

<snip

> > I said this, Josh, not Neil (in case you are confusing the two of us in your question above). My issue, in saying it, was not to wonder how there could be minds in the world at all but to wonder how minds happen in the world, given the evident physical and, therefore, apparently inanimate, nature of this world in which minds occur?

> Yes, Stuart, I'm clear it was you saying this.
>
> But I wanted to take issue with it, and Neil had responded without
> taking issue with it, so I responded to both separately.

>
>
> > That is, my "how" was not a metaphysical "how" (how can things come to be, whether particular things or things in general) but a scientific one, i.e., what is it about some physical things that produces the subjectness of minds that have manifestly come to be in this world?
>
> But the question is, whether there are ANY different issues
> regarding mind, that do not also concern any mereological or
> phenomenal entities.
>

> This is a methodological question Fodor spend extensive time
> on, what questions of "mind" are really questions of scientific
> or philosophical methods more generally? Because there does seem
> to be a tendency to treat any questions of mind as if they were
> specific to minds only - as I suppose a fisherman considers all
> questions of the world in the context of fish.
>
> Josh
>
>
> =========================================

Fish, eh? I'm confused, Josh. What is Fodor taking issue with exactly? After all, my question is really only about what it is that SOME brains do which prompts us to speak of the creatures that have them in their skulls as being "conscious"?

(Is that a clean way of saying this in order to avoid the alleged mereological fallacy of ascribing consciousness to brains out of context, etc.?)

It seems to me that the question I initially expressed above ("what is it about some physical things that produces the subjectness of minds that have manifestly come to be in this world?") is a perfectly scientific question, even if what we mean by "consciousness" is not, i.e., THAT question would either be:

1) linguistic -- if the issue is what speakers of a particular language use the sounds made by those letters when pronounced to mean; or

2) philosophic -- if the issue is what kind of thinking the users of that word in the English language are engaged in (i.e., what is the conception of the presumed referent they have or think they have)?

The linguistic version of this question could, of course, be answered by recourse to a dictionary (either bi-lingual or in the language at issue, if the speaker already has facility with that language), or by asking an acknowledged fluent speaker of the language. It might also entail some ancillary questions including what other words is "consciousness" related to, what are its eytemological origins, what contexts are appropriate for its deployment(s), etc.

The philosophic version of this question would be answered, on the other hand, by exploring a range of uses demonstrated by sufficiently versed speakers of the language (in which the word occurs) and could then prompt further concerns re: what kind(s) of referring is going on when we use a term like "consciousness", what particular kind of usage (language game) is the term appropriate to, what kinds of things can count as referents (and under what circumstances), and are there different kinds of referents and referencing within which we need to orient the usage under scrutiny, etc.

It seems to me there are lots of kinds of things we can ask and say here about "consciousness" but note that my point is to consider the philosophic concerns with regard to the scientific usage (as expressed in my initially formulated question above: "what is it about some physical things that produces the subjectness of minds that have manifestly come to be in this world?").

But note, too, that my aim is NOT to ANSWER the scientific question definitively here! THAT is not a question answered in a settled way by argument alone. My effort here is ONLY to explore whether or not the scientific question is a legitimate one to ask for the purpose of applying scientific research practices to brains AND the conscious beings which have them.

SWM

=========================================
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1.5.

Is Homeostasis the Answer?  (Re: Variations in the Idea of Conscious

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Thu Feb 4, 2010 2:22 pm (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "jrstern" <jrstern@...> wrote:
>
> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@> wrote:
> >
> > > Is this a special case?
> > >
> > > Do you worry about how cats come to be in a world chock full of non-cats? Hot things in a world chock full of cold things?
> >

You know, Josh, I was just thinking about my earlier answer to you on the above and it struck me that it is, in fact, a perfectly legitimate question to ask in science, i.e., how do we get cats and hot things in the world? Why wouldn't it be? The answers, respectively, might be to describe things like biological theories and evolution on the one hand, the physics of temperature variation on the other. Why shouldn't we ask, just as justifiably, how we get conscious things in a world which seems made up of unconscious things and endeavor to answer it via scientific research into how that particular phenomenon of the world works? -- SWM

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1.6.

Is this a special case?

Posted by: "jrstern" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Thu Feb 4, 2010 2:34 pm (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@...> wrote:
>
> > > > Is this a special case?
> > > >
> > > > Do you worry about how cats come to be in a world chock full of non-cats? Hot things in a world chock full of cold things?
>
> You know, Josh, I was just thinking about my earlier answer to you on the above and it struck me that it is, in fact, a perfectly legitimate question to ask in science, i.e., how do we get cats and hot things in the world? Why wouldn't it be? The answers, respectively, might be to describe things like biological theories and evolution on the one hand, the physics of temperature variation on the other. Why shouldn't we ask, just as justifiably, how we get conscious things in a world which seems made up of unconscious things and endeavor to answer it via scientific research into how that particular phenomenon of the world works? -- SWM

What if someone comes along and asks, "Hey, why does a brain tend
to fall towards the center of the planet"? They might then suggest
it's because of the mysterious wave-function collapse that must be
a magical and mystical function of the brain and/or mind.

If your response is, "Well, it's a legitimate, scientific question,
isn't it?" the answer is, sure, of course it is, but is it after all
a question about brains or minds?

Josh

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1.7.

Re: Is this a special case?

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Thu Feb 4, 2010 3:53 pm (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "jrstern" <jrstern@...> wrote:

snip>

> What if someone comes along and asks, "Hey, why does a brain tend
> to fall towards the center of the planet"? They might then suggest
> it's because of the mysterious wave-function collapse that must be
> a magical and mystical function of the brain and/or mind.
>
> If your response is, "Well, it's a legitimate, scientific question,
> isn't it?" the answer is, sure, of course it is, but is it after all
> a question about brains or minds?
>
> Josh
> =========================================

Depends what we mean by "minds", no? If, as I would say, a mind is the state of being a subject, then the issue of gravity would seem, at least on the face of it, to be irrelevant. But if someone chose to say something along the lines of what I might imagine you saying, 'the mind is just a certain kind of brain operating in a certain way' (which on one level I wouldn't disagree with, though I would treat that as more of a causal explanation than an out and out definition), then wondering about why minds qua brains react like rocks vis a vis the pull of gravity would be a scientific question, if not an especially interesting one! -- SWM

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1.8.

Is Homeostasis the Answer?  (Re: Variations in the Idea of Conscious

Posted by: "iro3isdx" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Thu Feb 4, 2010 5:29 pm (PST)




--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@...> wrote:

> You've said homeostasis is at the bottom of it and that no computer
> has homeostasis, and that simply producing a virtual homeostatic
> state in a computer won't suffice to do the same thing as really
> having it. But you haven't shown or described just what it is about
> homeostasis that gets us to intentionality

A homeostatic process is self aware (in a primitive sense) and is
adaptive to change. Those seem like plausible precursors to
consciousness and intelligence.

> Every time I ask you to answer these questions you tell me I am
> misunderstanding you or talking about something else.

I had been attempting to give explicit things that a cognitive agent
does, but that AI people are not considering. And that's where
communication breaks down.

Let me try a different example. I take out a ruler and measure my desk
to be 30 inches high. That "30 inches high" is a representation that I
created out of whole cloth. By that, I mean that if I had looked at
all of the signals being received by sensory cells, "30 inches high" is
not something I could extract from those signals. It didn't come from
signals, it came from my carrying out a procedure (a measuring
procedure).

The reason that "30 inches high" is about something, is that I created
specifically to be about something. By constrast, the usual AI
approach is to look at signals picked up by sensors. But those signals
are not intentional. They are just apparently meaningless signals
picked up. There might be something useful hidden in them, if you have
prior knowledge on how to extract. But how you get from signal to
intentional representation is not obvious if it is even possible.

So notice the difference. I start with intentions and deal with
intentional representations from the get go. The AI model starts with
meaningless signals, and I am inclined to think that it will never have
more than meaningless signals.

Think, for a moment about bird songs or whale sounds. It is quite
likely that these are some part of a communication system. And if they
are, then presumably the bird song is intentional for the birds. But we
apparently cannot determine what those bird songs are about. At best we
can look for correlations with behavior. If it were ever possible to
start with signals that are meaningless to us, and to somehow find
meaning by analysis of those signals, then this should be an ideal
case. If we can't do it, then there's not much chance that we can
program computers to do it.

> If your idea of "mechanism" is as constrained as you have described
> it above, "human artifacts" only, then it would not be surprising
> that you would make this mistake. But biological functioning is as
> mechanical (on my broader view of "mechanism") as anything else,
> even if they aren't manmade!

If everything is a mechanism, the "mechanism" loses its meaning. I
don't see anything mechanical about biological functioning. But
obviously we disagree on what the word means.

> But you seem to want to disregard mechanical explanations entirely on
> the grounds that this implies something artifactual made by humans.

That's a complete misreading. I am not saying that we should discard
mechanical explanations, and I am not saying that there's a problem
with artifacts. I was just responding to your thinking it strange that
there can be cognitive agents in a world of inanimate things. My point
was that, if anything, it is the presence of mechanisms that is
strange.

Regards,
Neil

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2a.

Re: [C] Re: Proper Names --Wittgenstein, Russell, Kripke

Posted by: "Glen Sizemore" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Thu Feb 4, 2010 3:02 pm (PST)





--- On Thu, 2/4/10, J D <ubersicht@gmail.com> wrote:

> From: J D <ubersicht@gmail.com>
> Subject: [C] [Wittrs] Re: Proper Names --Wittgenstein, Russell, Kripke
> To: wittrsamr@freelists.org
> Date: Thursday, February 4, 2010, 12:57 AM

>
> Why in Heaven's name are you calling these "brain
> behaviors"?  Brains don't do these things.  People
> (who presumably have brains) do these things.  And what
> is bringing something that sounds vaguely neurological meant
> to contribute? 

I have been down this road with Sean, and I have some advice for you - quit while you're ahead. What is most fascinating about ol' Sean is that he thinks that this talk of "brain behaviors" or "brain scripts" is perfectly consistent with later Wittgenstein. For him, for example, meanings are things in the brain that are conveyed by utterances - pretty Wittgensteinian, eh?
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3a.

Re: Proper Names --Wittgenstein, Russell, Kripke

Posted by: "Sean Wilson" whoooo26505@xxxxxxxxx   whoooo26505

Thu Feb 4, 2010 5:23 pm (PST)



(J)

.. this last message of yours really is hard to follow. It's all over the place. It's really hard to participate in the telephone-conversation format because adding up all of the short, off-the-head replies made to sentences instead of points in a message makes for a tedius effort on my end. And if I just do the same back to you, it ends up not really being "discussion" in any helpful sense. Also, I really want to avoid these little pithy sort of things that go on, ok? So, with that said, I'm going to try one last time to see where I think you have some serious trouble here.

IN GENERAL
Let me start this off with two general statements. I think the trouble here boils down to two basic things.

1. You seem to think that names can only ever be "bearer-calls" and not bearer-assignments. (Now, it's hard for me to say for sure, because I have to read tea leaves here). It seems that you want to say that a name could never set forth criteria to ASSIGN its bearer, and must always, instead, always be the thing that a particular bearer calls to.  

2. Related to this, I think you also (as a consequence) must deny that names are a family resemblance, of which bearer-calls are only one kind (but perhaps an archetype).  This is why you seem to deny that nicknames are "names" or that titles (in the sense I spoke of) are. Or that the examples of hyperbole that take the form of names are a species of "name." And why you find no helpful sense in "historical Moses" as opposed to legendary "Moses" (the key being only to find the right bearer-call).   

I think, in your view, if we found out that Moses was actually named "Ghandalf," that only then could we say that Moses didn't exist. But in fact, note that one could validly say ANY of the following: (a) that "Moses" was really Ghandalf; (b) that Ghandalf is "Moses;" (c) that Moses is known by two names; (d) that Ghandalf has two names. This is the same as Wittgenstein's Excalibur. When bearers become separable from names, the names take on the power of assignment.

Imagine knowing someone intimately for a long time. Then, the person changes. And you say, "That's not Jane anymore." You have separated the name from the bearer because the name has taken on a kind of status or criteria in your language. Of course, you don't mean that the bearer-called-Jane doesn't exist; you mean that attribute set X is no longer present in the bearer. Now, your view, J, seems to think that only bearer-calls are relevant. That Jane's name can only ever mean "the bearer-called Jane." But what I am saying is this: FOR THE LANGUAGE CULTURE, this use of "Jane" is a perfectly ordinary use. We hear it all the time. And it is surely NOT WITTGENSTEINIAN to make this objection: "that's not a proper use; names are only [this]." That would be the kind of thing a librarian would say. Rather, a Wittgensteinian would say, "That's not the sense of 'Jane' I meant."  And that is the key: "JANE" HAS SENSE.

And by the way, although it would be stretch -- actually, poetry -- this is also legitimate. Say you found a person, Rhonda, who seemed to exhibit attribute set X perfectly the same as "Jane." You could commit hyperbole with name (elevating it to a title) by saying, 'Rhonda is Jane.' This is a perfectly meaningful sentence. Making successful meaning is all that matters in the language game. It's a legitimate sense of "Jane" under the circumstances. People who understand "Jane" as you do would get the point entirely. So you aren't the one who controls this; the language culture does. If you were to deny that names work like this, you would be saying that they don't function in cognition or culture like ordinary words. And for you to imply that the only real "name" is the bearer-called-Jane is the same as saying the only real "chair" is the kind that looks like an archetype.   

TAUTOLOGY
1. You've misunderstood several points here. You've appeared to equate "Messy Marvin" (MM) with "Marvin is messy." These are not the same. MM is a name that is functioning as a title. When Marvin grows up, one could rightly say, "he's not MM anymore." Names mean more than historical bearer-calls. Also, your point about class valedictorian (cv) isn't right. CV isn't a "name;" it's an ordinary tautology like "bachelor" can be. For that example to occur, one would have to have their identity distinguished by that feature. Let's imagine a Greek demi-God called "Valedictor," who was said to have the best marks among all the learned gods. If we had found that Valedictor was runner up, we could validly play a language game as to whether "Valedictor" existed. The game would be between bearer-call and bearer-assignment. It would, in short, be between two senses of "names."     

MARKING
1. This point isn't understood either. Because you only see names as bearer-calls, you don't see "numbering humans" as being a type of name. But in fact, the language culture doesn't support you (which is all that matters).  By this I don't mean that the culture treats an id number as a bearer-call -- although, it probably does in some limited cases -- I mean that the bearer-called are also numerically-borne AS A MEANS OF BEARING. The emphasis here is on the kind of activity it is. Just as names individuate, so do markers (brands). And what is not understood here is that the METHOD of creating a bearer is its MEANS. And so, we locate bearers by pointing, marking, describing and by tautology. And the activity of all of these behaviors can be understood as being the family of "names" -- i.e., the things we do to create bearers. 

Compare: the person X is called "Sally." The person X is "SSN 123-445-6677." Or those who say, "Sally is DNA such and such" (All that your cloning examples show is that the marking system isn't perfect. That's not germane). 

POINTING
1. Here, your points are most poor. I don't even know what you are talking about. I know well Wittgenstein's points about ostensive definitions. Here's what you are probably missing (a quote from my paper):

Some may find Wittgenstein a little unclear here. At one point, he says that pointing and saying "that" do not (together) constitute "naming." Surely this is true. "That" is a pointing; not a naming. But he also says that we often use pointing as away to explain a name, such as, "That is Jane." Here, the difference is that, thought we are pointing toward "Jane," we are also, in a sense, pointing out her name, such that the _expression_ really can be thought of as that-plus (that-plus-name).  See ¶s 38 & 43 in PI.
   
BRAIN BEHAVIOR
1. I think it would be too much to try to give you this one, J. The message is already too long. Have a look at the message board if you are interested. (If you are, start a separate thread). http://seanwilson.org/forum/index.php?t=msg&th=1240&start=0&S=8f6e252b1089a313b6ce32a7386f26e8

Also, I'd stay away from Glen's invite here, for he sees Wittgenstein as a "behaviorist," which isn't true in the ordinary sense of the idea, and which in general cannot be explained to him.

EXCALIBUR:
Just a quick point here. I think you misunderstand W's (and my) point. Here's the exchange: 

(Me:) "...I think it can illustrate the point. I take it that the whole reason why the blade can be shattered, yet the statement 'Excalibur has a sharp blade,' remain meaningful, is that 'Excalibur' has come to take on the sense of a title or status (a set of rules) that is independent of the bearer."
(You:)  It may well never have had a bearer! (And no doubt, Wittgenstein was well aware of that point.)

The point about Excalibur was not that the blade was mythical. It was that, in the myth, it could be destroyed, yet still be meaningful to speak about. Ask yourself: how is it meaningful to speak about a name when: (a) it's bearer is gone; or (b) it's bearer doesn't live up to its billing anymore? Answer: names can be more than bearer-calls. There are games where names separate from bearers and take on whatever meaning they do (tautology, title, status, idealization, what have you).

"... [Reasons one would offer for a name as a simple:] The word 'Excalibur," say, is a proper name in the ordinary sense. The sword Excalibur consits of parts combined a particular way. If they are combined differently Excalibur does not exist. But it is clear that the sentence "Excalibur has a sharp blade" makes sense whether Excalibur is still whole or is broken up. But if "Excalibur" is the name of an object, this object no longer exists when Excalibur is broken in pieces; and as no object would then correspond to the name it would have no meaning. But it does make sense; so there must always be something corresponding to the words of which it consists. ...  We said that the sentence 'Excalibur has a sharp blade' made sense even when Excalibur was broken in pieces. Now this is so because in this language-game a name is also used in the absence of its bearer.  " (44, 39)  

Regards and thanks

Dr. Sean Wilson, Esq.
Assistant Professor
Wright State University
Personal Website: http://seanwilson.org
SSRN papers: http://ssrn.com/author=596860
Discussion Group: http://seanwilson.org/wittgenstein.discussion.html

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3b.

Re: Proper Names --Wittgenstein, Russell, Kripke

Posted by: "J D" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Thu Feb 4, 2010 10:45 pm (PST)




SW,

I'll start with an observation: I am not entirely clear about what you mean in distinguishing between "bearer-calls" and "bearer-assignments", so I can neither confirm nor deny when you impute to me the view that a name can only ever be the former and never the latter. I do however suppose that that is probably not right because I would always wish to emphasize the multiplicity of ways in which names are used. So, a claim like "names are always... and never...", however one might fill in the blanks, is just not something I'd be inclined to say.

(It may be that the "telephone-conversation format", as you put it, gave the misleading impression that I was debating you. And that therefore I was advancing some position contrary to your own. When I address a remark to something you've written, offer a clarification or observation, it is meant to be pertinent. But if you do not find the remarks pertinent, so be it. Perhaps I have misunderstood you. In which case, it is entirely possible that we aren't disagreeing. "Reading tea leaves" to ascertain what contrary position I am trying to advance (presumably in some subtle or covert way) would only be counter-productive. I find "these little pithy sort of things" to be the best way for me to proceed but if they aren't helpful, I understand.)

Now, you say, "It seems that you want to say that a name could never set forth criteria to ASSIGN its bearer, and must always, instead, always be the thing that a particular bearer calls to." (Forgive the "telephone-conversation format", but how else am I to make clear what I am addressing?)

A few points:

Names don't "set forth criteria". Language users do that. And the rules language users follow in correctly using a name include various criteria. Some of these criteria may in some cases be used to determine the bearer to whom the name is assigned, the bearer to whom the name is rightly applied.
The criteria may work just fine but in some cases they may lead to ambiguity. That does not make them any less serviceable in the many cases where no such problems arise.

A name is not it's bearer. I have ever even suggested such a thing. In fact, I've explicitly rejected it. A name is often used to indicate it's bearer and when we use names to express propositions, we are typically talking about the bearer, not about the name. "'Sally' has 5 letters" is about the name. "Sally has 5 children" is about the person, the bearer of the name. "Sally is the eldest daughter of..." may be used to tell us something about Sally or it may be offerred as a rule for individuating Sally, a rule for the correct use of the name "Sally". It depends on the context.

An explanation like, "Sally is the eldest daughter of..." may be treated as a rule and in typical cases will serve just fine. But we can always imagine atypical cases, e.g. where her parents had another daughter whom they had put up for adoption and never again discussed or where Sally had been kidnapped and unlawfully adopted.

Further, I am not saying that a name always has a bearer or that a name is always taught by indicating its bearer.

Additional point. I never denied that nicknames are names. I don't know why you would impute this to me. I said that nicknames are not proper names as "proper name" is used in ordinary English. If someone asks your name and you give them a nickname they might well clarify, "I mean your proper name..." Still, they are names. And in philosophical discussions, "proper name" is often used in a wider sense than in ordinary English.

I also never denied that titles can be treated as names.

And I never denied that the hyperbolic use of names is still a use of names: I merely emphasized some distinctions between different cases.

And if you can set forth some criteria for neatly distinguishing between the Moses of tradition and the Moses of history, I'd welcome you to share. I have not denied that we might come up with a basis for such a distinction and that such a distinction might be well-motivated. I merely inquired as to what was on the table in this regard.

As for Moses, there are various reasons we might have for saying that Moses did not exist. My only point was that the boundary between those cases where we should say that a particular account did not accurately describe Moses and those cases where we should say that Moses did not exist is not clearly deetermined in advance. The talk about Moses going by a different name ("Ghandalf") is completely beside the point. On the contrary, I would readily acknowledge the possibility that a person who did various things whom we call "Moses" might have been called an entirely different name by his contemporaries.

Regarding "That's not Jane anymore", I don't dispute that such a usage is part of our language. I was emphasizing that there is a distinction between a person who comes to behave in a way that no longer conforms to our prior expectations or a person who turns out never to have been the sort of person we'd supposed (where we might be inclined to engage in the hyperbole you describe) and the person who is only known to us by way of various descriptions and narratives whose existence we come to question as we discover that the various narratives may be substantially false.

I never said that the use of hyperbole was incorrect, never denied that it occurs. Comparing me to a librarian is irrelevant. (Besides: are librarians noted for making such judgments? I thought the stereotype was the schoolmarm. I've known a few librarians and many were fond of wordplay and colorful tropes.) I'm not laying down a standard of correctness. I am pointing out distinctions between cases. And that certainly is Wittgensteinian.

And just for the record, I also don't deny the "Jane is Rhonda" trope (although it's actually seldom presented that way). "Dick Cheney is Darth Vader" is the most recent and widely heard example that comes to mind, though that also involves a fictional name. Calling people "Hitler" is all too common (and offensive for a range of reasons). Calling someone "Freud" who insists on ascribing various views and motives to people on meagre evidence is another popular example that seems to me oddly appropriate at the moment.

I did not equate the nickname "Messy Marvin" with the sentence "Marvin is messy". On the contrary, I emphasized that Marvin might not live down the nickname "Messy Marvin" even after he's cleaned up his act, even after the nickname is no longer apt. And I emphasized that Tiny might actually be a big guy, so the aptness of a nickname might be a matter of irony.

"Bachelor" is not a tautology. I don't know why you persist in referring to individual words or referring expressions as tautologies. They are not tautologies by any of the uses of that word with which I am familiar, because every use of "tautology" I know of applies to propositions and to being true. A word, a name, a referring _expression_, or a descriptive phrase are none of them propositions and true and false do not apply to them except as they are used to form propositions.

"Class valedictorian" can be and is treated as a name and uniquely identifies in the context of a graduation ceremony or a class reunion. In other contexts, it does not uniquely identify. Just as "the President" is regularly used as the name of a single individual in the US, though if you go outside the US or are writing history or if you are attending a meeting of a companies board of directors, it would no longer be able to function in that way.

Where did I deny that a number assignment could function as a name? You've objected to the "telephone-conversation format", but it at least has the virtue of letting someone know the basis on which a position is being imputed to them. I'd also note that you keep imputing to me various positions I do not hold and have never advanced while at the same time ignoring a great deal of what I actually did say.

The phrase "create bearers" for what I am guessing is individuation of a bearer and assignment of a name to the bearer is unfortunate. But I find many of the phrases you've coined here to be unfortunate in various ways.

With regard to my examples of identical twins, cloning and so forth: my point was both to emphasize similarities and differences between the different cases you were offering and where they potentially break down. And the fact that we can and do treat the linking of a name to a DNA profile as a rule but are yet prepared to revise our judgment in certain cases is as germane as Wittgenstein's own remarks with which he concludes with the simile of the four-legged table. It is entirely germane to the shifts between symptoms and criteria (to which Wittgenstein alludes in subsequent remarks) and to the shift that happens when we move from treating a proposition as a statement of fact and as the _expression_ of a rule.

Regarding pointing, you've simply called my points "poor" without in any way specifying how. You said, "I don't even know what you are talking about," and while that may indicate that my points were poorly expressed or even that I don't have a point at all, I would think you'd be more circumspect in assuming that points you didn't understand were "poor".

The points I was raising do not concern PI 38 or 43 so much as 28, 29, 30, and 33.

I wasn't planning to get into any disputes between you and GS and will probably not bother with looking into past discussions on this, though I do thank you for providing the link. I've learned my lesson on that score as you're likely well aware. If the role of "brain" talk becomes relevant, we may revisit it.

I understood perfectly well the explicit point that "Excalibur" does not become meaningless when the sword is destroyed. I was pointing out the additional (and not explicit) point in using the mythological example. Wittgenstein could have chosen historical examples of artifacts that had been destroyed to make the first point but he chose the example from legend to suggest to a close reader the latter point as well, foreshadowing later discussions. You infer that because I point out the second point, I must be denying the first and therefore have misunderstood. I don't think such an inference was warranted. In any case, it was mistaken.

I also stand by my assertion that the primary role of introducing the Excaliber example is to illustrate a view that he proceeds to challenge, namely the view that there must be ultimate names for simples. And again, this is not to deny the point that the name "Excalibur" does not become meaningless when the sword is destroyed, but the "simples" view doesn't claim that either. It is only once the "simples" view is challenged that the way is opened to the insight comparing "meaning" and "use".

JPDeMouy

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4.1.

Re: SWM on causation

Posted by: "BruceD" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Thu Feb 4, 2010 9:13 pm (PST)




--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@...> wrote:

> How can your brain cause you to do this or that?

I'm puzzled by the question. You insist brains cause consciousness. And
being conscious means doing this or that. If the brain causes
consciousness, it causes doing this or that.

> To think about turning, as in a wheel turning, is not to think about
two entities: the wheel and the turning.

Right! It is to think about one entity in two positions. But
consciousness is not any position of brain!

> This is why I keep noting that you are thinking of consciousness as if
it were entity-like ... But it is your picture, not mine.

Which makes your position quite mysterious. You start with a literal
thing, a brain, and then it causes something non-literal, an abstraction
that we attribute to people.

Can a literal thing cause an abstraction attribution? When someone says
"the morning sun causes me to have a good day" is it like saying "the
morning sun causes the birds to chirp?"

bruce

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