[C] [Wittrs] Digest Number 127

  • From: WittrsAMR@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • To: WittrsAMR@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: 2 Feb 2010 05:31:36 -0000

Title: WittrsAMR

Messages In This Digest (25 Messages)

1.1.
Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of Consc From: SWM
1.2.
Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of Consc From: Justintruth
1.3.
Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of Consc From: SWM
1.4.
Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of Consc From: iro3isdx
1.5.
Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of Consc From: SWM
1.6.
Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of Consc From: iro3isdx
1.7.
Variations in the Idea of Consciousness From: SWM
1.8.
Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of Consc From: Justintruth
1.9.
Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of Consc From: J D
1.10.
Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of Consc From: SWM
1.11.
Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of Consc From: Sean Wilson
1.12.
Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of Consc From: Justintruth
1.13.
Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of  Cons From: Sean Wilson
1.14.
Re: Variations in the Idea of Consciousness From: iro3isdx
1.15.
Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of Consc From: iro3isdx
1.16.
Re: Variations in the Idea of Consciousness From: SWM
1.17.
Re: Variations in the Idea of Consciousness From: iro3isdx
1.18.
Is Homeostasis the Answer?  (Re: Variations in the Idea of Conscious From: SWM
1.19.
Re: Variations in the Idea of Consciousness From: jrstern
1.20.
Is Homeostasis the Answer?  (Re: Variations in the Idea of Conscious From: iro3isdx
2.1.
Re: On the Varieties of Dualism: Phenomenological Dualism From: SWM
2.2.
Re: On the Varieties of Dualism: Phenomenological Dualism From: iro3isdx
3.1.
Re: SWM on causation From: SWM
4.1.
[C] Re: Wittgenstein on Religious Belief From: J D
5.1.
Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett viz Fodor From: gabuddabout

Messages

1.1.

Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of Consc

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Feb 1, 2010 6:29 am (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "BruceD" <blroadies@...> wrote:

>
> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@> wrote:
>
> > In fact, Dennett is asserting mind is physical in this sense: Minds
> are part of the physical universe...
>
> I take it the "physical universe" refers to material objects, sticks and
> stones, plants and animals but not dreams and feelings...or does the
> "physical universe" refer to any and all possible experience?
>

To sticks, stones, oceans, lightning bolts, electro magnetism, gravity, light waves, microwaves, atoms, strong and weak nuclear attraction, etc.

> If the former, mind is invisible entity.

Is electromagnetism and entity? Is the spin of a wheel an entity?

> If the latter, well, why bother
> affirming the obvious.
>

Because the issue is where do minds come from, how do they occur in a physical universe made up of apparently non-conscious stuff? One doesn't have to assert that minds are entities to assert that they are part of the physical universe, that they require nothing more to occur than is required for everything else in the physical universe. (I feel like I am endlessly repeating myself here, Bruce. Why is this so hard to see?)

> > All this means is that, on a view like Dennett's, the occurrence of
> minds in the universe is explainable
> > in terms of what we currently know, or what is implied by what we
> currently know, about the physical universe.
>
> Now you shift from "mind is physical" to "the occurrence of mind"
> requires a body. A claim no one can deny.
>
>

So what's the problem? I am not asserting minds qua entities and never have been and have frequently explicitly explained why I wasn't. Yet you persist in interpreting everything I say as though it were to do just that. My point to you is that it is YOUR apparent inability to shake this picture that keeps you coming back to this everytime you read my remarks on the issue.

For some reason you cannot separate the idea of being a physical entity (having extension, mass, texture and a myriad of other observable features) with the idea of being physically derived (part of the total physicality of the universe). As long as you persist in making this switch in your head, everytime you read what I say about this, you will continue your reading of something I am not writing here.

> > It means, rather, that all these things (minds, selves, experience)
> are explainable, on this model,
> > in physical terms by reference to what brains do and how they do it.
>
> Now you shift again to "explaining how mind works."

There is no "shift" in what I am saying. It's all of a piece. You see a "shift" because you cannot shake the picture of mind as entity and your preferred solution, simply to declare the mystery, to pronounce descriptions of mind in this way "unintelligible" doesn't resolve the matter. It's just an effort to shut the door on the discourse. But that only takes you out of the conversation. Scientific researchers and others proceed apace, even if you want to say they cannot accomplish their goals.

> And now the claim is
> that "minds are explainable in physical terms but if, and only if, you
> import mental terms.

Since we are talking about explaining mind we have to use "mental terms" to describe what is being explained. Otherwise, there really is unintelligibility, a gap. Your mistake is in presuming that "mental terms" foreclose the option of physical description. But then what is it that folks like Dehaene are doing in your mind?

>So, we explain falling in love by the secretion of
> a hormone. The trick is to import the mental terms to the physical and
> then claim the mind is physical.
>

Sometimes that would be the appropriate explanation if it were true. It would depend, of course, on the context.

> > Against this Dennettian type view, are arrayed a variety of dualist
> positions which propose that the only way mind
> > can be accounted for is by assuming there is something that is
> extra-physical
>
> Doesn't Dennett recognize, as we all do, that mind, as such, isn't
> physical.

For god's sake man, what do you think I have been saying here all this time? He explains the occurrence of experience by resort to description of real or theorized physical phenomena. But that isn't to say mind is physical in the entity sense. The ENTITY SENSE Bruce!

> But then wants to call it physical by giving a physical
> account of the body parts that are critical for having a mind. We play
> music with our brain and hands, but no account of music can be given in
> terms of brain and hand, except to say..
>
> > Asserting a physical cause or physical derivation for mind IS to say
> it is physical in a certain sense
>

> In the sense that everything originates in the bang. And the emergence
> of mind?
>

Part of the same array of phenomena that started out with a bang!

> > Mind, while it may be localized in any given brain, is a different
> category of thing, more akin to the turning of a wheel...
> > There is the wheel and the turning. Both are physical though we would
> not want to say both are physical objects.
>
> Sorry. A wheel at rest or turning is a physical thing. Yes, the concept
> "turning" isn't physical.

It most certainly is! What is non-physical that turns? Can turning occur in a ghostly way? A turning spirit? Where is that? How do we know it is turning?

> No concepts are. You need a mind to conceive
> of a wheel of turning. You need a mind to conceive of your mind as
> actually physical.
>

This has NOTHING to do with whether or not anyone conceives it this way! Even if no one figured it out, the brain would still be the source of our minds because of how it works.

> > So it all depends on what we mean by "physical".
>
> True. Again, is everything that is or could be "physical."
>
> bruce
>
>

If part of the physical phenomena of the universe, yes. But note that we SOMETIMES use "physical" in a different way, i.e., to distinguish between things that have extension, etc., and things that don't. Energy and matter offer one such dichotomy in common (though perhaps dated) usage, yet both are part of the physical universe. Dollar bills and a notation of dollars in an account offer another kind of dichotomy.

The issue vis a vis minds arises when some want to say that the mind, because it isn't physical (as in being a physical entity), must be some different kind of entity that comes from a different source, a source that is either outside the physical framework of the universe or else that mind must be a special something that is sometimes added to the universe through some sort of inexplicable (mysterious? magical?) production.

Anyway, this looks like an endless debate again. Everytime I think we're getting somewhere I am rudely awakened by the kinds of statements you've made here. We have moved no farther than where we began five lists ago in talking about this, I fear.

As Wittgenstein might have said: How can we go on?

SWM

=========================================
Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/

1.2.

Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of Consc

Posted by: "Justintruth" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Feb 1, 2010 7:16 am (PST)



Thank you very much for the work involved in clarifying this. I
appreciate it sincerely.

You say that ?Dennett isn't asserting that the mind is a physical
thing.?
You say that ?Dennett is asserting minds are part of the physical
universe?

Ok I understand the terms this far. I conclude:

Part of the physical universe, or a physical aspect of the universe
perhaps, is not a physical thing.

I understand this far.

I assert that none of the physical models included in the physical
sciences include this physical non-thing, or aspect, called mind.
Current physical models do not include predictions about mind.

You further assert ?No new principles or types of energy or
suppositions about extra-physical phenomena need apply?.

Ok since you have defined ?physical? to include that which is ?not a
physical thing? then the new principle that is needed is not - by
agreement - as you say ?extra-physical?. However, since minds are to
be included in the physical universe and since physics does not
currently describe their existence in any of their current models a
modification of the current physics is in fact required. Why?

I assert that an ?arrangement? of physical things is a physical thing
and since minds are not physical things and since the physics predicts
only a new arrangement of physical things based on an old one, then we
need this new physical principle to establish the relation between an
arrangement of physical things and the production of physical non-
things that are minds ? or if you prefer ? between an arrangement of
physical things and a newly defined physical aspect of those things,
different from the current aspects described.

We need this to complete the physics if minds are to be considered
part of the physical universe that it is the function of physics to
describe since it currently does not describe it.

The following is I think a very bad (false, and misleading in fact)
analogy: ?Mind, while it may be localized in any given brain, is a
different category of thing, more akin to the turning of a wheel than
to the wheel itself.? This is a very bad analogy because the turning
of a wheel is very amply defined in terms of the current physics. The
turning of a wheel in classic physics is defined in terms of the
angular velocity of an assembly of particles about an axis referenced
to some coordinate system. It is an arrangement of matter. Angular
velocity is the vector cross product of the moment radial vector and
the velocity vector. The velocity vector is the rate of change of the
position. There is however, nothing in the physics like this about
mind or awareness etc. This is the first that is not about predicting
the arrangement of physical things.

Nor can this be excused by the fact that the brain is more complicated
than a wheel. Clearly the brain is more complicated but it is believed
that it is operating under the same laws and hence no matter how
complicated will never achieve awareness as a result of the physical
description. In other words it is not the complexity of the motion
that is the problem. It is because any motion does not imply awareness
no matter how complex even if it causes the device to pass the Turing
test.

Nor is there in the physical description a description of water, but
the chemical one has it and can be considered a working out of the
physical prediction. Water acts as the current physics predicts. For
all practical purposes for this discussion chemistry can be considered
an extension of physics that requires no further laws (or few but
explicit ones) and also the biological one and finally the
neurological one. All of these descriptions are consistent with
(reducible to) the outcome of current physical prediction and they do
not require any (or very little) maturation of the physics. The brain,
no matter how complex its motion can be described as an assembly of
physical things in motion by the current physics. (Ok, I understand
quantum mechanics and I understand the relativity of time but without
an elaborate discussion we can?t clarify why they are irrelevant or
second order discussions at best)

It is just that the predicted outcome of physical science, classical
or modern, does not predict awareness. More precisely they predict the
object model to the point that its extension into experience on the
objective side (its description of a measurement device and its
correlation to the experience of that measurement device in the
experience of an experimental physicist, and even its extension into
things like the visibility of a certain portion of the spectrum) is
obvious. Moreover these correlations are documented in physics texts
with illustrations. And yet we have the fact that mind (on the
subjective side) occurs.

Therefore a new physical principle(s) is (are) in fact needed. If
nothing else the extension of the predictive model into experience
needs to be extended to the subjective side of experience in the same
way that physical models currently are extended into an experience in
the lab. Toward that end using an analogy to the way that physical
models of say lab equipment are correlated to what the actual lab
equipment looks like to an experimenter seems a better ? but still
perhaps ultimately false - fit. In this case we need to emphasize that
the brain device does not just have an objective appearance but causes
experience to occur and may in fact be an experimenter. The problem is
at the root of science itself.

I am never sure what Dennett is saying and I suspect that might be a
didactic device on his part attempting to be provocative perhaps and
obscuring the issue to do so. But it is clear that if he thinks that
any physical motion, however complex, when considered as an object in
motion as understood by the current physics, is awareness, then he has
not understood the meaning of either the terms of the physics or the
term awareness. I take away from your response that he is not saying
that. Thank you for that clarification. However, then some additional
principles are needed for physics. I think it is the task of neurology/
cybernetics to find them and it is doing so.

So either Dennett is not saying that mind is a physical thing but he
is saying that mind is just a kind of motion of a physical thing which
again is plainly false once you see the meaning of the terms, or else
Dennett is saying that the physical universe contains more than what
is currently described in the physical model. You told me which. I
believe you are saying the latter. In that case the mind can be
considered ?non-physical? meaning ?not in the current physical model?
but can be considered ?physical? when the current physics is extended
to include awareness.

When I say I am aware I do not mean that the mechanism of my brain
moves in a certain way although, no doubt, the fact that I am aware is
caused by that motion.

Recently I accompanied a friend of mine to the hospital as she was
suffering temporary amnesia. I could during that evening repeat a
series of questions and she literally would repeat (as the nurses say
she became ?loopy?). She became very much (uncanny) like a machine and
I was very concerned for her. Each time she looped I was concerned
precisely because I knew the fear she was experiencing. I was relieved
when she would forget what was happening and start all over with the
question: ?Where am I?? as her anxiety was also erased by the fact
that she no longer remembered and she experienced relief. If I were to
have considered her to be solely what the current physics predicts I
would not have cared as she would just have been an assembly of
particles moving.

I have wondered what it would be like to be a brain running backwards
? but I suspect that this missing principle that I suggest exists
would not allow it because I conjecture that the famous ?arrow of
time? and the information theory on which it is ultimately based will
one day be associated with mind and with the new principle and the old
principles of entropy would prevent it. I think running a mind
backward would violate entropy (although in the extremely unlikely
case!) I conjecture that for mind to exist the device associated with
it must consume energy (but maybe not!).

I think we need a new physical principle (and investigative
techniques) to state under what conditions an assembly of particles
becomes aware. I am aware that it is not just a simple ?becomes aware?
but each of the many components of awareness needs to be associated
with those physical motions that are associated with it. I believe
that that program is being accomplished by neurology and cybernetics.
Its findings need to be scrutinized carefully for the new physical
principles.

Perhaps Searle is wrong and his Chinese room is ? literally ?
consciousness.

One other thing: You mentioned: ?..a lot of people get their backs up,
perhaps because they want to see a distinction between minds and
brains, a distinction that makes the mind different? There is I think
a larger program here. Certain religious experience is founded on a
collapse of the subject object distinction but it is not an
identification of mind and brain in the sense being proposed by
Dennett. In fact the motivation ?to get one?s back up? is really to
not allow the sidetrack at this point. Down the road is the discussion
about what ?external? and ?internal? are and the implications for
ethics and Wittgenstein?s role can be had but the conversation has to
stay on track at this point. If we simply claim that the mind is the
brain in motion and do not modify our understanding of what the brain
then is, we do indeed throw the baby out with the bathwater.

But I thank you for providing me the input that Dennett does not
simply claim that the mind is the motion of the brain. I had actually
been confused by him on that point as I carefully read one of his
papers and saw him clearly say that he was not challenging the
existence of consciousness ? only its special character. He then
however seemed to go on latter and imply at least that he was ? and
everything I read about what he thinks says (or very strongly implies)
that he thinks it is too. I think he does not emphasize or clarify
this point in his more popular venues as well as you have.

Perhaps in the future as we achieve biological mastery we can
experiment by being various devices and have sufficient memory
connection to remember what we were when we were that. We need
physical principles that determine what the effect of arranging matter
is with respect to the subjective experience it produces.
=========================================
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1.3.

Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of Consc

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Feb 1, 2010 8:15 am (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, Justintruth <wittrsamr@...> wrote:
<snip>

> >You further assert "No new principles or types of energy or
> > suppositions about extra-physical phenomena need apply".
>
> Ok since you have defined "physical" to include that which is "not a
> physical thing"

Note that by "physical thing" I am referring to those referents we describe in terms of observable features which have a distinct form that separates them from the observable features surrounding them, etc. That is I am using the term above to denote what we also sometimes call "physical objects". Obviously I am not suggesting that mind is not physical in another sense, namely the sense of being entirely derived from the same principles, forces and behaviors of our physical universe, i.e., I'm saying there is no need to add extra things into the mix which are not already part of what we mean by the physical universe.


> then the new principle that is needed is not - by
> agreement - as you say "extra-physical". However, since minds are to
> be included in the physical universe and since physics does not
> currently describe their existence in any of their current models a
> modification of the current physics is in fact required. Why?
>

That may be. I don't discount the possibility that something else may be required. I just conclude, for the reasons previously given (which you may or may not have already read) that an account like Dennett's looks adequate to me without adding anything else that is not currently known or accounted for as part of the physical universe.

> I assert that an "arrangement" of physical things is a physical thing
> and since minds are not physical things

Not entity-like, not physical objects but physically derived is how I would put it.

> and since the physics predicts
> only a new arrangement of physical things based on an old one, then we
> need this new physical principle to establish the relation between an
> arrangement of physical things and the production of physical non-
> things that are minds ? or if you prefer ? between an arrangement of
> physical things and a newly defined physical aspect of those things,
> different from the current aspects described.
>

I would disagree. There is no evidence or reason to think, at this point, that we need any kind of new principle to explain how brains operate. It is possible, of course, that such would be needed. But the mere fact that we currently don't know what it is about the brain's molecular and cellular arrangements that makes consciousness happen doesn't imply that the existing principles of explanation we have at our disposal are insufficient. It just may be that enough information has not yet been gathered and interpreted using currently known principles.

> We need this to complete the physics if minds are to be considered
> part of the physical universe that it is the function of physics to
> describe since it currently does not describe it.
>

Physics is an evergrowing science to be sure. There are things it cannot yet explain or give a satisfactory account of. That there are such things does not imply that the missing ingredient is an as yet undiscovered principle. It could, of course, but why make such an assumption without first working with what we already have?

> The following is I think a very bad (false, and misleading in fact)
> analogy: "Mind, while it may be localized in any given brain, is a
> different category of thing, more akin to the turning of a wheel than
> to the wheel itself." This is a very bad analogy because the turning
> of a wheel is very amply defined in terms of the current physics. The
> turning of a wheel in classic physics is defined in terms of the
> angular velocity of an assembly of particles about an axis referenced
> to some coordinate system. It is an arrangement of matter. Angular
> velocity is the vector cross product of the moment radial vector and
> the velocity vector. The velocity vector is the rate of change of the
> position. There is however, nothing in the physics like this about
> mind or awareness etc. This is the first that is not about predicting
> the arrangement of physical things.
>

The fact that mind is still unexplained does not imply it is of a different order than what is already explained nor that we must presume a need for a missing principle, as yet undiscovered, to complete the explanation.

The point of the analogy I made was not to say that turning and mind are the same thing but to show how we don't always restrict ascriptions of physicality to finite things. There is no turning in the world the way there is the wheel but both are physical because one doesn't need anything more than the descriptions provided by physics to explain either of them.

> Nor can this be excused by the fact that the brain is more complicated
> than a wheel. Clearly the brain is more complicated but it is believed
> that it is operating under the same laws and hence no matter how
> complicated will never achieve awareness as a result of the physical
> description.

THAT is an assumption on your part. In fact, the argument of people like Dennett (and Edelman, a neurobiologist) is precisely that a certain level of physical complexity is just what IS required.

> In other words it is not the complexity of the motion
> that is the problem. It is because any motion does not imply awareness
> no matter how complex even if it causes the device to pass the Turing
> test.
>

There is that same assumption of yours again! The argument of people like Dennett is that complexity is the key, that the jump from what we think of as inanimate matter to animate mind is achieved by a certain level and kind of physical activity.

> Nor is there in the physical description a description of water, but
> the chemical one has it and can be considered a working out of the
> physical prediction. Water acts as the current physics predicts. For
> all practical purposes for this discussion chemistry can be considered
> an extension of physics that requires no further laws (or few but
> explicit ones) and also the biological one and finally the
> neurological one.

Implying that from the neurological account we can get to the genesis of minds.

> All of these descriptions are consistent with
> (reducible to) the outcome of current physical prediction and they do
> not require any (or very little) maturation of the physics. The brain,
> no matter how complex its motion can be described as an assembly of
> physical things in motion by the current physics. (Ok, I understand
> quantum mechanics and I understand the relativity of time but without
> an elaborate discussion we can't clarify why they are irrelevant or
> second order discussions at best)
>

Talk to Joe about quantum theory. He is the great advocate on this list for dualism based on collapsing the quantum wave function!

> It is just that the predicted outcome of physical science, classical
> or modern, does not predict awareness.

Then that is a failure in the current level of the science just as science once failed to predict the things it predicts today. That is no reason to assume that there must be some radically new principle still missing in our account (though it could be the case, of course).

> More precisely they predict the
> object model to the point that its extension into experience on the
> objective side (its description of a measurement device and its
> correlation to the experience of that measurement device in the
> experience of an experimental physicist, and even its extension into
> things like the visibility of a certain portion of the spectrum) is
> obvious. Moreover these correlations are documented in physics texts
> with illustrations. And yet we have the fact that mind (on the
> subjective side) occurs.
>

Yes, we have that fact. The issue is what's needed to account for it? We know brains are the place where minds happen (at least that is consistent with today's scientifically based explanations). The issue then is to determine what it is about brains that effects this. Is it something special and unique goint on in brains? Do we need to posit an entirely new principle to account for what brains do? Or a new force in the universe? Or can we do it just by studying and describing the otherwise perfectly ordinary physical interplay that happens within brains between their constituent parts?

> Therefore a new physical principle(s) is (are) in fact needed. If
> nothing else the extension of the predictive model into experience
> needs to be extended to the subjective side of experience in the same
> way that physical models currently are extended into an experience in
> the lab.

It's not at all clear that a new principle is needed to account for that. In fact, Dennett's model posits otherwise and is testable using computational platforms and, as Stanislas Dehaene, a French neurobiolgical researcher has shown, studying actual working brains.

> Toward that end using an analogy to the way that physical
> models of say lab equipment are correlated to what the actual lab
> equipment looks like to an experimenter seems a better ? but still
> perhaps ultimately false - fit. In this case we need to emphasize that
> the brain device does not just have an objective appearance but causes
> experience to occur and may in fact be an experimenter. The problem is
> at the root of science itself.
>

The issue of subjectness or subjectivity is not necessarily something science is not equipped to handle. Many think it is up to it, in fact.

> I am never sure what Dennett is saying and I suspect that might be a
> didactic device on his part attempting to be provocative perhaps and
> obscuring the issue to do so.

Dennett is sometimes provocative and often polemical. But he is a clear, if verbose, writer in my experience. However, the subject matter is susceptible to much misreading because so many of the terms involved are vague, ambiguous, have multiple meanings and belong, ultimately, in a realm of reference that is not amenable to ordinary language. As Wittgenstein showed years ago, language is public in its provenance, it has its genesis and field of operation within a community of speakers with shared access to things. But subjective experience is, by definition, unshared and so language doesn't fit it very well. We try, by metaphor, expressiveness and, often, extensive description (that exceeds what we typically need for talk about public things), to compensate. But we are not always successful and, indeed, perhaps we never can be, at least not with the degree of definiteness we achieve in our talk about the things we all share access to.

> But it is clear that if he thinks that
> any physical motion, however complex, when considered as an object in
> motion as understood by the current physics, is awareness, then he has
> not understood the meaning of either the terms of the physics or the
> term awareness.

You should not take my use of the wheel and its turning as an example of his claim. I merely present that analogy as a way of showing that not everything we call physical must be object-like. Thus, my point is that we can extend this to consciousness, too, i.e., we can call it "physical" (in the sense of being part of the physical reality of the universe, physically derived) without stepping outside the bounds of what we typically do with language in other venues. That is, I am pointing out that it is perfectly legitimate to imagine consciousness as physical in THIS sense, even while agreeing that it isn't physical the way an apple or a chair are.

> I take away from your response that he is not saying
> that. Thank you for that clarification. However, then some additional
> principles are needed for physics. I think it is the task of neurology/
> cybernetics to find them and it is doing so.
>

Perhaps a new principle or principles will be needed. At this juncture, however, I see no reason to hasten down that path when we haven't fully explored the current paths we have.

> So either Dennett is not saying that mind is a physical thing but he
> is saying that mind is just a kind of motion of a physical thing which
> again is plainly false once you see the meaning of the terms, or else
> Dennett is saying that the physical universe contains more than what
> is currently described in the physical model.

Neither. Nearby I actually offered a little of Dennett in response to something Joe had challenged me on. Perhaps that's a good place to start in getting clear on Dennett's position since it's in his own words.

> You told me which. I
> believe you are saying the latter.

No.

> In that case the mind can be
> considered "non-physical" meaning "not in the current physical model"
> but can be considered "physical" when the current physics is extended
> to include awareness.
>

No. That's not my point.

> When I say I am aware I do not mean that the mechanism of my brain
> moves in a certain way although, no doubt, the fact that I am aware is
> caused by that motion.
>

Right.

> Recently I accompanied a friend of mine to the hospital as she was
> suffering temporary amnesia. I could during that evening repeat a
> series of questions and she literally would repeat (as the nurses say
> she became "loopy"). She became very much (uncanny) like a machine and
> I was very concerned for her. Each time she looped I was concerned
> precisely because I knew the fear she was experiencing. I was relieved
> when she would forget what was happening and start all over with the
> question: "Where am I?" as her anxiety was also erased by the fact
> that she no longer remembered and she experienced relief. If I were to
> have considered her to be solely what the current physics predicts I
> would not have cared as she would just have been an assembly of
> particles moving.
>

We all may just be such an assembly even so, though that need not be to say that our particular configured arrangement lacks consciousness, etc.

> I have wondered what it would be like to be a brain running backwards
> ? but I suspect that this missing principle that I suggest exists
> would not allow it because I conjecture that the famous "arrow of
> time" and the information theory on which it is ultimately based will
> one day be associated with mind and with the new principle and the old
> principles of entropy would prevent it. I think running a mind
> backward would violate entropy (although in the extremely unlikely
> case!) I conjecture that for mind to exist the device associated with
> it must consume energy (but maybe not!).
>

This goes too far afield for me. I don't know quite how to respond to proposals for time machines and such!

> I think we need a new physical principle (and investigative
> techniques) to state under what conditions an assembly of particles
> becomes aware.

I don't nor am I convinced by your presentation that we do. If current paths proved unsuccessful over a reasonable period of time your approach might look more promising but as of now, it doesn't seem to be required.

> I am aware that it is not just a simple "becomes aware"
> but each of the many components of awareness needs to be associated
> with those physical motions that are associated with it. I believe
> that that program is being accomplished by neurology and cybernetics.

In what way?

> Its findings need to be scrutinized carefully for the new physical
> principles.
>
> Perhaps Searle is wrong and his Chinese room is ? literally ?
> consciousness.
>

Take a look at Dennett on Searle (the subject of my recent response to Joe) then.

> One other thing: You mentioned: "..a lot of people get their backs up,
> perhaps because they want to see a distinction between minds and
> brains, a distinction that makes the mind different" There is I think
> a larger program here. Certain religious experience is founded on a
> collapse of the subject object distinction but it is not an
> identification of mind and brain in the sense being proposed by
> Dennett.

Right, it is not.

> In fact the motivation "to get one's back up" is really to
> not allow the sidetrack at this point. Down the road is the discussion
> about what "external" and "internal" are and the implications for
> ethics and Wittgenstein's role can be had but the conversation has to
> stay on track at this point. If we simply claim that the mind is the
> brain in motion and do not modify our understanding of what the brain
> then is, we do indeed throw the baby out with the bathwater.
>

Again I think you take the wrong message from my wheel analogy. Yes, I will agree that "in motion" is relevant to the causal explanation but I am not proposing that the mind is fully describable by reference to any such motion.

> But I thank you for providing me the input that Dennett does not
> simply claim that the mind is the motion of the brain. I had actually
> been confused by him on that point as I carefully read one of his
> papers and saw him clearly say that he was not challenging the
> existence of consciousness ? only its special character.

Yes, many get him wrong on that!

> He then
> however seemed to go on latter and imply at least that he was ? and
> everything I read about what he thinks says (or very strongly implies)
> that he thinks it is too.

To say that what we think of as our selves, our conscious minds, is reducible to more basic constituents, to physical processes going on in brains, etc., is NOT to say we don't have selves or minds or consciousness! It is merely to say they are explainable in terms of physical events, etc.

> I think he does not emphasize or clarify
> this point in his more popular venues as well as you have.
>

He tends to be verbose rather than concise, I think. In the nearby post in which I transcribed text from Dennett's Consciousness Explained which I had sought out for Joe (because Joe had challenged my claim that Dennett had accused Searle of what Joe likes to call "substance dualism"), I had to type an awful lot of words covering some three or four pages in order to show him making that point. Rather than making the simple statement, he just goes round and round. It was very annoying for me since I'd have much preferred a simple declarative from him. But that's just how he writes and, I suspect, it's also why so many have trouble getting his point. He is a clear, down-to-earth writer, but he isn't a tight and precise one. There is a difference.

> Perhaps in the future as we achieve biological mastery we can
> experiment by being various devices and have sufficient memory
> connection to remember what we were when we were that. We need
> physical principles that determine what the effect of arranging matter
> is with respect to the subjective experience it produces.

Well that's an interesting proposal. I take it you are suggesting the transfer of minds from brains to some other physical platforms?

If that is doable at all, it will have to be because a model like Dennett's is correct.

SWM

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1.4.

Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of Consc

Posted by: "iro3isdx" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Feb 1, 2010 9:40 am (PST)




--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, Justintruth <wittrsamr@...> wrote:

> I think we need a new physical principle (and investigative
> techniques) to state under what conditions an assembly of particles
> becomes aware.

An assembly of particles never becomes aware. No new physical
principle is required.

Regards,
Neil
1.5.

Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of Consc

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Feb 1, 2010 11:15 am (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "iro3isdx" <xznwrjnk-evca@...> wrote:

> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, Justintruth <wittrsamr@> wrote:

> > I think we need a new physical principle (and investigative
> > techniques) to state under what conditions an assembly of particles
> > becomes aware.
>
> An assembly of particles never becomes aware. No new physical
> principle is required.
>
> Regards,
> Neil
>

I think you're wrong on that Neil and that Justintruth has it right, at least as far as this goes. If it is not something physical that is aware, what do you propose it is that is aware instead? And if it is something physical, what better description than "an assembly of particles"?

Of course I would have added to that the following: "doing certain things in a certain way", as I habitually do in this kind of description. But as a short hand way of saying it, Justintruth's way seems as good as any to me.

I don't agree with Justintruth's proposal that "a new physical principle" is required but grant that it is at least possible that it might be so even if I see no reason to reach for that at this point.

SWM

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1.6.

Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of Consc

Posted by: "iro3isdx" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Feb 1, 2010 11:45 am (PST)




--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@...> wrote:

>> An assembly of particles never becomes aware. No new physical
>> principle is required.

> I think you're wrong on that Neil and that Justintruth has it right,
> at least as far as this goes. If it is not something physical that
> is aware, what do you propose it is that is aware instead? And if
> it is something physical, what better description than "an assembly
> of particles"?

The particles that today are part of my body will, in 6 months time,
have been dispersed around the world. Yet I expect that I will still
exist. So clearly, I am not an assembly of particles. Perhaps I am an
assembly of biochemical processes, though I think the term "assembly" is
misplaced there. Maybe "an organized system of processes" would be a
better description.

Regards,
Neil

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1.7.

Variations in the Idea of Consciousness

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Feb 1, 2010 12:18 pm (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "iro3isdx" <xznwrjnk-evca@...> wrote:
<snip>

>
> The particles that today are part of my body will, in 6 months time,
> have been dispersed around the world. Yet I expect that I will still
> exist. So clearly, I am not an assembly of particles. Perhaps I am an
> assembly of biochemical processes, though I think the term "assembly" is
> misplaced there. Maybe "an organized system of processes" would be a
> better description.
>
>
> Regards,
> Neil

I don't think the transience of the particular constituents particles is the key but I can see the point of your restatement as "an organized system of processes". That would also be consistent with my view which is that of multiple realizability. On that view the issue is not even so much the processes as the functions that are performed by them. In that case even the processes aren't the essential element (though it may just be an empirical fact that only certain kinds of processes can do the job).

Still, I think that Justintruth's formulation as an assembly of particles is a useful shorthand for what is intended. If "assembly" is taken as the key feature then it wouldn't matter what the particles are as long as they can be assembled in the right way where the right way will depend on their ability to accomplish the requisite functions.

Now all of this is useful for getting a handle on what we have in mind by a term like "consciousness" or "mind" but in the end none of it can be decided by discussions, either here or elsewhere. What remains is for particular models to be conceived and implemented in sufficient detail and then tested, refined, etc. So perhaps, once we have wrung out the fine points of difference in our ways of speaking about this, we have brought the discussion to an end, except with those who continue to be dissatisfied with an approach to consciousness that conceives it as being physically derived. That is, the only debate we can usefully pursue on a list like this would inevitably be with those who wish to support a different conception of consciousness entirely -- or who consider this conception of consciousness to be fatally flawed.

One further possible area of discussion might be determining the fine points of our positions, e.g., I know that you do not put much stock in the AI project whereas I do and that you favor a view of consciousness that ties it rather tightly to organic forms of life while I, of course, do not.

SWM

SWM

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1.8.

Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of Consc

Posted by: "Justintruth" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Feb 1, 2010 1:10 pm (PST)



I want to state as clearly as I can why I think a new physical
principle is required if we are to call awareness physical:

1a) We have agreed to describe my awareness as physical.
1b) It is the job of physics to describe what we agree to call
physical.
1c) Therefore physics should describe my awareness.

2a) A description of the motion of particles is not a description of
awareness.
2b) Physics is only a description of the motion of particles. (Using a
version of classical physics as a first order approximation)
2c) Therefore physics does not describe my awareness.

1c) Physics should describe my awareness
2c) Physics does not describe my awareness
3c) Physics needs to be modified to include a description of
awareness.

Which statement(s) do you disagree with?

I note that you have recommended that I read some things.
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1.9.

Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of Consc

Posted by: "J D" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Feb 1, 2010 1:51 pm (PST)



Justin,

The problem with this argument is that, were it valid, it would prove too much.

The periodicity of the elements cannot be derived entirely from principles of physics. We can make some generalizations and point to various facts of physics that would account for this periodocity, but we can't get to the periodicity from physics.

Does this prove that chemical reactions aren't physical processes?

They aren't processes described by physics. But they are physical processes.

And this helps to pinpoint one flaw in your argument: 1a-1c involve an equivocation in the use of "physical".

JPDeMouy

PS I'm not really a partisan in these discussions but I wanted to comment on the argument on its own terms.

> 1a) We have agreed to describe my awareness as physical.
> 1b) It is the job of physics to describe what we agree to call
> physical.
> 1c) Therefore physics should describe my awareness.
>
> 2a) A description of the motion of particles is not a description of
> awareness.
> 2b) Physics is only a description of the motion of particles. (Using a
> version of classical physics as a first order approximation)
> 2c) Therefore physics does not describe my awareness.
>
> 1c) Physics should describe my awareness
> 2c) Physics does not describe my awareness
> 3c) Physics needs to be modified to include a description of
> awareness.

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1.10.

Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of Consc

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Feb 1, 2010 3:09 pm (PST)



I'm guessing this is addressed to me?

--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, Justintruth <wittrsamr@...> wrote:
>

> I want to state as clearly as I can why I think a new physical
> principle is required if we are to call awareness physical:
>
> 1a) We have agreed to describe my awareness as physical.
> 1b) It is the job of physics to describe what we agree to call
> physical.
> 1c) Therefore physics should describe my awareness.
>

The point I want to make is that a causal description looks like it is achievable without invoking a new principle or the need for one. Other kinds of description, such as talk of motivations in terms of feelings, intentions, beliefs, etc. aren't relevant to this kind of description though they do necessitate a different level of discourse. But the fact that there are multiple levels of discourse doesn't imply a need for one to completely subsume the other.

> 2a) A description of the motion of particles is not a description of
> awareness.
> 2b) Physics is only a description of the motion of particles. (Using a
> version of classical physics as a first order approximation)
> 2c) Therefore physics does not describe my awareness.
>

The issue is not to describe it but to account for it causally. A different question.

> 1c) Physics should describe my awareness

No, or at least not on the view I am espousing. There is no obvious need for it to do so. However, it (or an appropriately derived form of discourse) should be able to describe the causal relation by which your awareness happens in the world.

> 2c) Physics does not describe my awareness
> 3c) Physics needs to be modified to include a description of
> awareness.
>
> Which statement(s) do you disagree with?
>

Specified above.

> I note that you have recommended that I read some things.
> ==========================================
>

Only if you want to. Before your joining us there was a long history of discussions here relating to these issues among many of the listees. But they are often repetitive and interminable so I'm not sure you would even want to go back and delve into the past, or that it would pay, given how many words have been written. If you choose to continue with the present discussion, I will try to be explicit enough so that backtracking to prior posts will not be necessary, at least where my own remarks are at issue. However, should you feel unusually ambitious and want to read past posts, I would never prevent you. But I wouldn't do it myself!

SWM

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1.11.

Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of Consc

Posted by: "Sean Wilson" whoooo26505@xxxxxxxxx   whoooo26505

Mon Feb 1, 2010 3:14 pm (PST)



(J and Justin)

I was going to say something similar, but more along these lines:

"2a) A description of the motion of particles is not a description of  awareness"

It could be, in a SENSE of talking (about awareness). What sense we give to "awareness" or "physical" seems to dispel any philosophical problem here. Once the sense of the words is understood, it seems then to only be a matter of whether the information (facts) is (or is not) what it is said to be (or what it may be down the line, for those who are prognosticating).

And this was the only real thing that concerned me: of what value is it for analytic philosophers to bring out "logic premises" that deploy family resemblance ideas? Physics, physical, awareness, motions and particles are all family-resemblance ideas. For one to think that you can "move the earth" by plugging them into a logical arrangement of statements would seem to suggest that they are fixed quantities. Can one do math upon a family? Notice what happens to the format:

 1a) We have agreed to describe "awareness" [note the quotes] as "physical" in a sense of talking.
 1b) It is the job of "physics" [note the quotes] to describe a sense of "physical."
 1c) Therefore, "physics" should describe the sense of awareness in 1a)  [DOESN'T FOLLOW].

 2a) A description of the motion of particles is not a description of
"awareness" in any sense of talking. [NOT TRUE].
 2b) "Physics" is only a description of the motion of particles. (Using a
 version of classical physics as a first order approximation)
 2c) Therefore "physics" does not describe the sense of awareness in 1a. [THIS COULD BE MEANINGFUL]

 1c) "Physics" should describe the sense of awareness in 1a [WHY??]
 2c) "Physics" does not describe the sense of awareness in 1a
 3c) Physics needs to be modified to include a description of the sense of awareness in 1a [WHY???].

Hail to Wittgenstein.

Dr. Sean Wilson, Esq.
Assistant Professor
Wright State University
Personal Website: http://seanwilson.org
SSRN papers: http://ssrn.com/author=596860
Discussion Group: http://seanwilson.org/wittgenstein.discussion.html

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1.12.

Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of Consc

Posted by: "Justintruth" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Feb 1, 2010 3:37 pm (PST)



My understanding is that the periodicity is solely a function of the
standard model of physics and that the periodicity is predicted by the
quantum theory of orbitals (especially the valence shells). We may not
be able to calculate all of the atoms' orbitals but I believe that the
standard model results in a prediction of the formation of the
elements and the periodicity of the elements and the bonding between
elements etc. It is electronic attraction and repulsion. Perhaps you
are referring to the exclusion principle? Or is it the problems with
computing large atom orbitals or molecular orbitals? Classical
mechanics could not even solve the three body problem in closed form
so it is not surprising to me that we can't do the calculations but I
think we believe that the principles of physics are operating and the
predicted result, that nuclei will form and electrons will form clouds
around nuclei and then that the atoms will interact are all a result
of physical principles. Being aware is not. Its just not predicted by
the science.

In fact the cosmic abundance of hydrogen and helium has been predicted
by cosmology and the rest of the elements creation are modeled fairly
well by nucleo-synthesis in the stars. They not only know the periodic
table as a result of physics but can predict how the atoms were formed
to a large degree.

I believe that most chemists would say that the periodic table is a
result of the standard model of quantum mechanics and for good reason.
The mechanism is clear. The chemical reactions are just the bonding -
motion - of the atoms as they collide and attach. Chemistry is a
description of the motion of atoms.

On Feb 1, 4:50 pm, "J D" <ubersi...@gmail.com> wrote:
> Justin,
>
> The problem with this argument is that, were it valid, it would prove too much.
>
> The periodicity of the elements cannot be derived entirely from principles of physics.  We can make some generalizations and point to various facts of physics that would account for this periodocity, but we can't get to the periodicity from physics.
>
> Does this prove that chemical reactions aren't physical processes?
>
> They aren't processes described by physics.  But they are physical processes.
>
> And this helps to pinpoint one flaw in your argument: 1a-1c involve an equivocation in the use of "physical".
>
> JPDeMouy
>
> PS  I'm not really a partisan in these discussions but I wanted to comment on the argument on its own terms.
>
> > 1a) We have agreed to describe my awareness as physical.
> > 1b) It is the job of physics to describe what we agree to call
> > physical.
> > 1c) Therefore physics should describe my awareness.
>
> > 2a) A description of the motion of particles is not a description of
> > awareness.
> > 2b) Physics is only a description of the motion of particles. (Using a
> > version of classical physics as a first order approximation)
> > 2c) Therefore physics does not describe my awareness.
>
> > 1c) Physics should describe my awareness
> > 2c) Physics does not describe my awareness
> > 3c) Physics needs to be modified to include a description of
> > awareness.
>
> Need Something? Check here:http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/
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1.13.

Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of  Cons

Posted by: "Sean Wilson" whoooo26505@xxxxxxxxx   whoooo26505

Mon Feb 1, 2010 3:50 pm (PST)



Justin:

Please don't leave so much of the person's message in your mail. Try to leave only what is necessary.   Also, did you not see this: http://seanwilson.org/forum/index.php?t=msg&th=1941&start=0&S=8f6e252b1089a313b6ce32a7386f26e8 ? 
 
Regards.

Dr. Sean Wilson, Esq.
Assistant Professor
Wright State University
Personal Website: http://seanwilson.org
SSRN papers: http://ssrn.com/author=596860
Discussion Group: http://seanwilson.org/wittgenstein.discussion.html

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1.14.

Re: Variations in the Idea of Consciousness

Posted by: "iro3isdx" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Feb 1, 2010 5:19 pm (PST)




--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@...> wrote:

> I don't think the transience of the particular constituents particles
> is the key ...

That comment misses the point I was trying to make. My comment was not
about the transience of particles, but about the importance of
processes.

> On that view the issue is not even so much the processes as the
> functions that are performed by them.

I would be careful with that. The primary functions performed by
biochemical processes are biochemical in nature. But perhaps they also
perform a secondary informational processing function. And, in that
case, perhaps it is this secondary informational processing that
matters as far as our interests are concerned.

> Still, I think that Justintruth's formulation as an assembly of
> particles is a useful shorthand for what is intended. If "assembly"
> is taken as the key feature then it wouldn't matter what the
> particles are as long as they can be assembled in the right way
> where the right way will depend on their ability to accomplish the
> requisite functions.

It's not how the particles are assembled that matters, it is the
processes being carried out.

Our intuition is that particles are not aware, and thus that an
assemblage of particles is not aware. Insisting on ascribing awareness
to an assembly of particles feeds mysticism. I don't think we have the
same sort of intuition about processes, so I think that the idea of
processes experiencing is less of a mystery.

> ... and that you favor a view of consciousness that ties it rather
> tightly to organic forms of life while I, of course, do not.

Actually, that is wrong. We see organic forms of life, but I treat
that as a mere implementation detail. My interest is in the underlying
principles. I am not committed to only organic solutions.

Regards,
Neil

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1.15.

Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of Consc

Posted by: "iro3isdx" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Feb 1, 2010 5:26 pm (PST)




--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, Justintruth <wittrsamr@...> wrote:

> 1a) We have agreed to describe my awareness as physical.

I haven't agreed to that. I agree that there is a physical basis for
awareness, but I am uncommitted as to whether the term "physical" can
be properly applied to awareness.

> 1b) It is the job of physics to describe what we agree to call
> physical.

Hmm, no it isn't. It's up to physicists to decide what physics should
do. They are not bound by our every whim in usage of the word
"physical."

Regards,
Neil

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1.16.

Re: Variations in the Idea of Consciousness

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Feb 1, 2010 5:44 pm (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "iro3isdx" <xznwrjnk-evca@...> wrote:

>
> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@> wrote:
>
>
> > I don't think the transience of the particular constituent particles
> > is the key ...
>
> That comment misses the point I was trying to make. My comment was not
> about the transience of particles, but about the importance of
> processes.
>

All right. It wouldn't be the first time I've misread you!

>
> > On that view the issue is not even so much the processes as the
> > functions that are performed by them.
>
> I would be careful with that. The primary functions performed by
> biochemical processes are biochemical in nature. But perhaps they also
> perform a secondary informational processing function. And, in that
> case, perhaps it is this secondary informational processing that
> matters as far as our interests are concerned.
>

That, of course, is the point of my position. That is, I am intentionally separating the biological or biochemical ways in which brains (and other parts of an organism) do what they do in favor of focusing on what they do.

> > Still, I think that Justintruth's formulation as an assembly of
> > particles is a useful shorthand for what is intended. If "assembly"
> > is taken as the key feature then it wouldn't matter what the
> > particles are as long as they can be assembled in the right way
> > where the right way will depend on their ability to accomplish the
> > requisite functions.
>
> It's not how the particles are assembled that matters, it is the
> processes being carried out.
>

Well on that I would say we seem to be in agreement though I say it tentatively since I so often seem to get you wrong. Perhaps though we aren't saying the same thing at all because, by the "processes being carried out" I mean whatever it is they are accomplishing whereas, based on what you have just said above, I take it you really mean the nature of those processes themselves, i.e., that neurons in brains do what they do by biochemical operations.

I would agree that there may indeed be a relevant difference (relevant to the ability to accomplish the same thing) between neurons in brains and chips in computers, say. After all, there are certainly going to be some chips and other kinds of mechanisms (even including some cells) that will just not be up to the task of replicating what neurons in brains do. But I would say that, at this stage of our knowledge, the notion that biochemical processes are uniquely able to cause consciousness (or may be among the things that are uniquely able to do it), while silicon chips and their proceesses must be excluded can only be a possibility. Because of that I would not want to exclude computer chips, etc., from consideration.


> Our intuition is that particles are not aware, and thus that an
> assemblage of particles is not aware. Insisting on ascribing awareness
> to an assembly of particles feeds mysticism. I don't think we have the
> same sort of intuition about processes, so I think that the idea of
> processes experiencing is less of a mystery.
>

Intuition is a dangerous hook on which to hang our claims, I think. In fact it is often wrong. Moreover, there is nothing mystical, as I see it, in supposing that consciousness, awareness, is a function of a certain kind of physical system (defined as certain things going on in a certain way to accomplish certain tasks). Where is this mysticism you think inheres? Indeed, I would argue that it is precisely the opposite of mysticism and that what is really mystical is the picture that consciousness is NOT an outcome of certain physical processes!

Now, in deference to our past misunderstandings, please note that I am not asserting that this is your position. I am just saying that this is where we will find mysticism, not in the notion that there is something about the physics (defined broadly so that we take this up the line to chemistry, biology, etc.) of how brains works that gives us the awareness we recognize in ourselves and others.

>
> > ... and that you favor a view of consciousness that ties it rather
> > tightly to organic forms of life while I, of course, do not.
>
> Actually, that is wrong.

So what else is new?

> We see organic forms of life, but I treat
> that as a mere implementation detail. My interest is in the underlying
> principles. I am not committed to only organic solutions.
>
> Regards,
> Neil
>
> =========================================

Okay. So you are open to the possibility that AI might be the right path then, your previous insistence on the importance of the homeostasis of living systems to this goal not withstanding?

SWM

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1.17.

Re: Variations in the Idea of Consciousness

Posted by: "iro3isdx" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Feb 1, 2010 6:56 pm (PST)




--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@...> wrote:

> Okay. So you are open to the possibility that AI might be the
> right path then, your previous insistence on the importance of the
> homeostasis of living systems to this goal not withstanding?

I never insisted that the homeostasis be biological. I still need
something like homeostasis as the basis for making the pragmatic
decisions required for a working system. I don't see a way for AI to
solve that problem with computation.

Regards,
Neil

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1.18.

Is Homeostasis the Answer?  (Re: Variations in the Idea of Conscious

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Feb 1, 2010 7:38 pm (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "iro3isdx" <xznwrjnk-evca@...> wrote:

> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@> wrote:

> > Okay. So you are open to the possibility that AI might be the
> > right path then, your previous insistence on the importance of the
> > homeostasis of living systems to this goal not withstanding?
>
> I never insisted that the homeostasis be biological. I still need
> something like homeostasis as the basis for making the pragmatic
> decisions required for a working system. I don't see a way for AI to
> solve that problem with computation.
>
> Regards,
> Neil
>
> =========================================

Okay, not necessarily biological then. And homeostasis implies purpose, right, i.e., the purpose of maintaining the integrity of the system. From this drive comes the many functions of living organisms though not necessarily only living organisms. That is you want to say that it's at least conceivable that something non-living could be a homeostatic entity, too.

As to life, I suppose at least one definition of it might be that of self-regulating, self-sustaining, self-propagating closed systems which is, of course, to say homeostatic systems of a sort. Thus, whatever the basis of the system, it's being considered alive might hinge on its being homeostatic in the way one-cell and multi-celled organisms are in the world in which we live, right? In that case would it be fair to say that we have something of a tautology, that is, that living organisms just are these kinds of systems?

However, there's at least another possibility, i.e., that to be "life" such a system has to be constructed of the right stuff, i.e., the kind of complex carbon based molecules that we're made of and that any other system, constructed of anything else, would not be what we call "life". But that seems odd if the functionalities are the same. Suppose we encountered a group of closed systems that are, say, silicon based on another planet and they did all the things described for living organisms here on Earth (they are self-sustaining, self-regulating, self-propagating)? Wouldn't we want to call them instances of "life" too?

Another possibility: Suppose by "homeostasis" you only mean self-sustaining and self-regulating but not necessarily self-propagating. Then one might conceive of some systems which are based in a material that lacks the ability to propagate itself (say silicon chips) but would have the rest, i.e., the capacity to maintain itself in a certain kind of equilibrium, to keep invading entities out, etc. Would that be "life" or not? Must a living organism be, at least in principle, all of the things we recognize in life forms like ourselves?

This is why I presumed that when you spoke of homeostasis, as found in living cells, you meant only what we usually call "life". But given the possiblity of more broadly or more narrowly defining "life" and your point that you don't want to necessarily limit the possibilities to the familiar kinds of closed systems we typically think of as "life" (and that "life" can be defined in a variety of ways, as we've seen, even if the empirical facts of the universe limit the ways life can actually occur) I am wondering what this implies for your thesis concerning homeostasis as the necessary ingredient for consciousness to occur?

As we've discussed in the past, if you mean by this requirement that the right things must happen for consciousness to develop in certain kinds of entities over the course of evolutionary time, I would be very much in agreement with you, at least on a theoretical level. I rather expect that evolution IS the important dynamic at work here for achieving consciousness through nature. But the issue on the table is something a little different, i.e., it is what do brains, that are the product of evolutionary development, do to make/cause/produce consciousness in the world?

This, it seems to me, is a different question entirely from whether homeostasis has a role in the occurrence of consciousness at some point in natural history and one that begs an answer with regard to your thesis concerning the need for homeostasis in order to achieve consciousness in any given entity.

That is, what is the mechanism that living entities of a certain type (those with brains at least like ours) require for consciousness to happen? What is it that brains must do, that they in fact do do, in to cause instances of consciousness in the world?

Your view that homeostasis holds the key has always intrigued me, as you know, but I have never quite gotten what it is you are claiming for homeostatic systems (beyond the fact that they are very likely to have led to the development of consciousness over evolutionary time).

You have suggested that it is pragmatic consideration, i.e., that homeostatic systems (living organisms being the only ones of the right type I can think of because only they have a complete set of those features we associate with homeostasis) act in various ways to maintain themselves (that is, they are self-differentiating or distinguishing, self-sustaining, self-propagating, etc.).

Now all of this does, it seems to me, apply to evolutionary developments in groups of individual systems qua species as noted. But what is there about homeostasis that is uniquely required for consciousness to occur in any particular instance of a system of this type?

I guess what I'm trying to understand is where is the homeostatic pragmatic operation in the brain, aside from the fact that it's a product of eons of selection in multiple environments in competition with competitor pragmatic homeostatic systems? What is the pragmatic because homeostatic driven feature(s) of the brain that gives us the features we associate with being conscious, with having a mind.

I want to stress, Neil, that I am not intending to be a wiseguy here and I'm not trying to put you on the spot. I just find your thesis interesting enough to want to know more. I'm not saying it cannot be right by posing these questions because, truthfully, I don't really understand it yet. But I would like to because every suggestion may have within it the seeds of a solution.

SWM

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1.19.

Re: Variations in the Idea of Consciousness

Posted by: "jrstern" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Feb 1, 2010 8:48 pm (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "iro3isdx" <xznwrjnk-evca@...> wrote:
>
> Our intuition is that particles are not aware, and thus that an
> assemblage of particles is not aware.

Isn't this the negative of the fallacy of composition?

One block is not a pair, therefore two blocks cannot be a pair?

I do not mean to trigger a discussion of emergence, but do we
really need emergence to uncover all the mysteries of pair-ness?

> Insisting on ascribing
> awareness to an assembly of particles feeds mysticism. I don't
> think we have the same sort of intuition about processes, so I
> think that the idea of processes experiencing is less of a
> mystery.

I have found the intuition can be retrained.

Anyway I was taught somewhere in grade school, that intuition is
not a valid argument, most especially in scientific matters.

My intuition tells me an assembly of particles is the only thing
that there is, that could even possibly become aware - insofar as
there is any "awareness" for anything to become. But I doubt if
my intution will convince you, unless accompanied by quite some
arguments.

Josh

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1.20.

Is Homeostasis the Answer?  (Re: Variations in the Idea of Conscious

Posted by: "iro3isdx" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Feb 1, 2010 9:31 pm (PST)




--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@...> wrote:

> Okay, not necessarily biological then. And homeostasis implies
> purpose, right, i.e., the purpose of maintaining the integrity
> of the system. From this drive comes the many functions of living
> organisms though not necessarily only living organisms.

Yes, you've got it.

> That is you want to say that it's at least conceivable that something
> non-living could be a homeostatic entity, too.

Yes. A thermostatically controlled building would match those
requirements well enough.

> But the issue on the table is something a little different, i.e., it
> is what do brains, that are the product of evolutionary development,
> do to make/cause/produce consciousness in the world?

People are conscious. Brains aren't, as far as I can tell. That is,
brains are not enough. It isn't some magical internal processing that
results in consciousness. Rather, it is a way of interacting with the
world.

Unfortunately, you don't seem to be receptive to a discussion of that
way of interacting. Nor does anybody else, for that matter. Whenever I
try to get to that topic, I see a lack of interest.

> That is, what is the mechanism that living entities of a certain type
> (those with brains at least like ours) require for consciousness
> to happen?

The summary term that is used for what is required, is "perception."
Everybody (other than me) seems to want to take perception for granted,
without trying to examine what is required for perception. Note that I
am following J.J Gibson in distinguishing between perception and
sensation. Perception is involved with getting useful information
about the world.

> What is the pragmatic because homeostatic driven feature(s) of the
> brain that gives us the features we associate with being conscious,
> with having a mind.

There are lots of decisions that need to be made by the system in order
to implement perception. And many of these decisions are somewhat
arbitrary (not dictated by evidence). There are no suitable criteria
of truth that can settle them. That leaves pragmatic judgement as a
basis for such required decisions.

Regards,
Neil

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2.1.

Re: On the Varieties of Dualism: Phenomenological Dualism

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Feb 1, 2010 6:41 am (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "BruceD" <blroadies@...> wrote:

> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@> wrote:
>
> > there IS NO REASON TO ASSUME DUALISM TO EXPLAIN THE OCCURRENCE OF
> CONSCIOUSNESS!
>
> There is no reason to assume anything ( no substance of any kind,
> whether one or two) to explain the "occurrence of consciousness" if, by
> that term, you mean "being conscious" because "being conscious" is just
> part of being alive and there is nothing to explain. Unless you want to
> explain why there are human beings in the first place.
>
> bruce
>

What needs to be explained is how brains do what they do. This isn't an argument about how or why there are people or brains or about the metaphysical nature of the universe itself, whether one, two, three or more ontological basics. It's about how best to understand the features we encounter everyday as "mind".

Some want to say that, because consciousness isn't a physical thing, physical things cannot affect it nor it them, which leads to a mind-body problem as we already know. Thus one needs to develop an account of how the interaction between minds and the world and between brains and minds that is obvious occurs and what it amounts to.

Hence, too, the accounting for minds in the world as being of a derivation that is somehow different than that of which non-mental phenomena are derived, i.e., the argument for a dualist explanation of how things are!

But if one can account for how minds occur and act as they do by an explanation of brains alone, and nothing extra physical is brought into the equation, then one needn't posit dualism and can safely disregard the question of what does or does not underlie the universe at some really deep fundamental level entirely.

Thus this isn't about the metaphysics but about conceptualizing consciousness, i.e., can we account for what we mean by mind by reference to what brains do?

(I think I should just make a note of this explanation and periodically re-post it here in response to your ever-recycling arguments. It might save us both a lot of time and trouble.)

SWM

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2.2.

Re: On the Varieties of Dualism: Phenomenological Dualism

Posted by: "iro3isdx" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Feb 1, 2010 9:36 am (PST)




--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@...> wrote:

> What needs to be explained is how brains do what they do.

I expect that an explanation of how brains do what they do would be
excruciatingly boring.

What you are probably looking for, is an explanation of how brains do
what they are alleged to do. In most cases, the explanation would
probably be that they don't actually do that at all.

Regards,
Neil

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3.1.

Re: SWM on causation

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Feb 1, 2010 6:55 am (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "BruceD" <blroadies@...> wrote:

>
> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@> wrote:
>
> > In yourself or in others? In yourself it would seem odd to say 'I see
> signs I am waking up'. What signs?
>
> Quite commonly people wonder whether they are still asleep.
>

In dreams but I cannot think of a case where we wonder when we aren't. Of course there is the common phrase "pinch me so I know I'm not dreaming" but that is an exercise in hyperbole more than a claim to be unsure about whether one is asleep or not.

> > How can your brain cause you to do this or that?
>
> Isn't that your point of view. The brain causes consciousness....please
> clarify
>

The brain causes consciousness. But the brain doesn't cause you to do specific things except insofar as various features of your consciousness, as caused by the brain, kick in. This has to do with the different senses of "cause" of course. The same thing we have been talking about here for god know how long!

> > To think about turning, as in a wheel turning, is not to think about
> two entities:
>
> I don't know what entities are but a wheel at rest or turning is
> physical
>

And the turning of the wheel is also physical.

> > you cannot shake this picture that you interpret everything I say
> about this as invoking the idea of mind as entity!
>
> Because a physical account requires a physical medium in which the
> causation occurs.

THAT is your mistake. The wheel's turning is physical. It cannot occur without a physical something that turns. The turning is certainly not spiritual, not a ghost outside the machine, etc. And, indeed, the wheel may be called the medium in which the turning happens. Yet the turning isn't the wheel. Both are physical yet one can be pointed to directly because of its mass, extension, texture, etc.; the other can only be pointed to by pointing to the wheel which, of course, can also be at rest and thus no turning in existence.

> You can't start with a physical thing and claim it
> causes something physical but this physical is not in the same medium.
> In fact, it is nothing.
>

Is the turning of the wheel nothing then? Can the turning happen without the wheel? Yet both are real and in the world.

> > The question, of course, is what are the implications of what you have
> just said for understanding
> > what we mean by consciousness and what can bring it about and what
> sustains it?
>
> I don't see any mystery in "what we mean by consciousness." The mystery
> begins when one wants to reduce it to the physical.

A certain kind of knock on the head, wherein the brain resides, does away with consciousnes, the stronger the knock, the more permanent the disappearance. Nothing is more reductive than that! Unless you can give an account of minds persisting without brains or occurring apart from them, the reduction is already implied. The only question is whether you are prepared to acknowledge the implications or want to avoid that or come up with a different story (dualism?).

>What brings about
> consciousness is being born, which in every case requires the minimum of
> a body and what sustains it is living well.

That is a different question! Indeed, organisms are born all the time with varying degrees of consciousness and some, we may say, without consciousness (at least as we understand it) at all. This isn't about birth and death, it's about what brains do or do not do.

> The latter appears to be
> very difficult these days.
>
> bruce

"Living well" is irrelevant to the question at hand, indeed it is another change of subject!

SWM

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4.1.

[C] Re: Wittgenstein on Religious Belief

Posted by: "J D" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Feb 1, 2010 7:35 am (PST)



GS,

> GS: What does it mean that "their whole life seem to demonstrate sincere belief"? Are "beliefs" causes of what they do?

A good question! (It brings out what could readily be misunderstood.)

No, I am not speaking of cause here, not offering theories of psychology (or sociology, anthropology). The connection I am pointing to is a grammatical one.

Various decisions, actions, habits, and attitudes, taken in the context of one's wider life are symptoms and criteria (defeasible of course: these are not "necessary and sufficient conditions") of sincere belief. They are constitutive of what believers and many non-believers will count as sincerity.

And making the connection from the other direction, the beliefs are what are offered as grounds, what we count as reasons (not causes) for various decisions, actions, habits, and attitudes.

JPDeMouy

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5.1.

Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett viz Fodor

Posted by: "gabuddabout" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Mon Feb 1, 2010 3:36 pm (PST)





--- In WittrsAMR@yahoogroups.com, "jrstern" <wittrsamr@...> wrote:
>
> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "iro3isdx" <xznwrjnk-evca@> wrote:
> >
> > The problem for Jerry Fodor is that he sees intentionality as very
> > important. Yet his view of how the mind works (as discussed in his
> > "Methodological Solipsism" paper and in his "Modularity of Mind"
> > book does not actually depend on original intentionality at all.
> > So he has to be either epiphenomenalist or mystical about
> > intentionality.
>
> Or reductionist.
>
>
> > I reject
> > the extreme representationalism of AI and of Fodor.
>
> Me, too.
>
> Yet, I continue to find values in both.
>
> Fodor says, "no computation without representation", but I believe
> that is wrong. Certainly, neural networks compute, purportedly
> without representation.
>
> And (my topic of the week) Rorty too rejects the idea of mind
> (or philosophy) as a mirror of nature, in that he is (apparently)
> more instrumentalist about it all. I need to reread him before
> saying more.

Rorty mentions that debates in phil. of mind have a tendency to become scholastic quibbles over word-use/meaning.. Rorty was also a confessed eliminativist while also thinking that philosophy ought to become more a matter of something other than truth, whether this is true or desirable notwithstanding..

>
> I think the case is that representation is often available and
> convenient, but never necessary, in any sense of the term.

Then presumably you might like Armstrong's distinction between perception and perceptual experience such that perception may happen without perceptual experience. One can have a theory of intentionality, like Searle, without giving up the thesis that all perceptions are perceptual experiences--one can even be a direct realist without making Armstrong's distinction. See Searle's response to Armstrong in _John Searle and His Critics_.

>
> In which case, it is a project to revise Fodor in the light of
> the contingent nature of representation.
>
> Josh

Fodor puts everyone here to shame, philosophically if not really. One of his newer books is _Concepts: Where Cognitive Science Went Wrong_ (correct me if I got the title incorrect). Also have a look at his paper, if you can find it, "Having Concepts: A Brief Refutation of the Twentieth Century," presumably based on his book. Correct me if I'm wrong. So, a project.

From Wiki:

Fodor's criticism of Dennett:

Fodor starts with some criticisms of so-called standard realism. This view is characterized, according to Fodor, by two distinct assertions. One of these regards the internal structure of mental states and asserts that such states are non-relational. The other concerns the semantic theory of mental content and asserts that there is an isomorphism between the causal roles of such contents and the inferential web of beliefs. Among modern philosophers of mind, the majority view seems to be that the first of these two assertions is false, but that the second is true. Fodor departs from this view in accepting the truth of the first thesis but rejecting strongly the truth of the second.[15]

In particular, Fodor criticizes the instrumentalism of Daniel Dennett.[15] Dennett maintains that it is possible to be realist with regard to intentional states without having to commit oneself to the reality of mental representations.[16] Now, according to Fodor, if one remains at this level of analysis, then there is no possibility of explaining why the intentional strategy works:

"There is...a standard objection to instrumentalism...: it is difficult to explain why the psychology of beliefs/desires works so well, if the psychology of beliefs/desires is, in fact, false....As Putnam, Boyd and others have emphasized, from the predictive successes of a theory to the truth of that theory there is surely a presumed inference; and this is even more likely when... we are dealing with the only theory in play which is predictively crowned with success. It is not obvious...why such a presumption should not militate in favour of a realist conception...of the interpretations of beliefs/desires."[17]

Budd

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