Niel Yes I would agree with you, if I understand Locke correctly, it makes no sense for a blind person to talk meaningfully of a word if he has not experienced the object, but I am not to well read on this so I could be wrong but understand the commentors to agree with you. I was not aware of this argument of Lockes and thanks for bringing it to my attention. My intention of mentioning Locke and Berekely was to show the progression of ideas to Humes position of Solipism and the refutation of it. Brendan WEB VIEW: http://tinyurl.com/ku7ga4 TODAY: http://alturl.com/whcf 3 DAYS: http://alturl.com/d9vz 1 WEEK: http://alturl.com/yeza GOOGLE: http://groups.google.com/group/Wittrs YAHOO: http://groups.yahoo.com/group/Wittrs/ FREELIST: //www.freelists.org/archive/wittrs/09-2009
