[SI-LIST] Re: SPICE Question about mutuel inductance
- From: steve weir <weirsp@xxxxxxxxxx>
- To: Zhangkun <zhang_kun@xxxxxxxxxx>, si-list <si-list@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Mon, 11 Oct 2004 02:30:27 -0700
Zhangkun, as I understood your situation, you would like to have a
transformer where if you short the secondary, the primary will read zero
inductance, and where the inductance with the secondary open is
1.0nH. That means that you have perfect coupling, and a magnetizing
inductance of 1nH. Note that SPICE doesn't like K=1.0000000 so you will
have to set it slightly less, or depending on the SPICE vendor you have, it
will do so by itself. I trust that 1fH is close enough to zero for
whatever it is you are trying to do.
For example:
L1 2 0 1nH
L2 3 0 1nH
K1 L1 L2 .999999
Steve
At 09:09 AM 10/11/2004 +0800, Zhangkun wrote:
>Steve
>
>Could you give me some explaination? I could not understand why.
>
>Best Regards
>
>Zhangkun
>2004.10.11
>----- Original Message -----
>From: "steve weir" <weirsp@xxxxxxxxxx>
>To: <zhang_kun@xxxxxxxxxx>; "si-list" <si-list@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
>Sent: Monday, October 11, 2004 5:53 AM
>Subject: Re: [SI-LIST] SPICE Question about mutuel inductance
>
>
> > Zhangkun set the inductance of each to 1nH, and the coupling factor to 1.0.
> >
> >
> > Steve
> > At 08:05 PM 10/10/2004 +0800, Zhangkun wrote:
> > >Dear All
> > >I need to express the following circuit in SPICE. I do not know how to
> do.
> > >Please give me some advice.
> > >
> > >L1=0nH L2=0nH M12=M21=-1nH
> > >
> > >Best Regards
> > >
> > >Zhangkun
> > >2004.10.10
> > >
> > >
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