Sitar We have a multi-dimensional problem. It think you are trying to restrict it to just V and I or E and H. Remember, you have Ex Ey Ez Hx Hy and Hz to think about. But this is turning into a full-scale tutorial. Eventually we all have to go back to our books and I think it's time to close this discussion. Try Bleaney and Bleaney "Electricity and Magnetism" (OUP). Read the chapter on Filters, Transmission lines and Waveguides referring back to earlier chapters for understanding. You might learn something from surfing the web, but generally you will find many incomplete discussions, and this undergraduate text is much more secure. Best wishes Geoff -----Original Message----- From: Sitar Moniker [mailto:si_monkey2@xxxxxxxxx] Sent: 15 September 2004 17:24 To: Geoff Stokes Cc: si-list@xxxxxxxxxxxxx Subject: Re: [SI-LIST] Re: Open Termination Thank you, Geoff. To be specific, let us consider a microstrip line the load end of which is left open. There are two impedances. One is the impedance of the line (V/I) and the other, beyond the point where the line ends, is the impedance of free space (E/H) . The 377 Ohms I mentioned earlier corresponds to this (E/H). Am I right so far? If the open termination is modelled with fringing capacitance and possibly radiation loss, what is the magnitude of this impedance so we could approximate it with infinity? V and I on the line are due to propagating E and H waves. Then, what is the equivalent of a (V/I)=50 Ohms in terms of corresponding (E/H)? What is the equivalent of (E/H)=377 Ohms in terms of (V/I)? If ideal open circuit approx (Vi=Vr) is good especially at lower frequencies, why do we routinely use it at higher frequencies as well? Is there a somewhat realistic model for open termination? Geoff Stokes <gstokes@xxxxxxxxx> wrote: Sitar In addition to your modern engineering books, you also need a classical book on electricity and magnetism or microwave/rf engineering. This will show that: 1. Impedance of a wave in free medium (e.g. air) is not the impedance of a transmission line. One is E/H, the other is V/I. 2. Open termination is not infinite impedance and is sometimes modelled with fringing capacitance and possibly radiation loss. 3. For the ideal open circuit (which does not exactly exist as I just said, but sometimes it's good enough for an approximate analysis, especially at lower frequencies), the incident wave voltage, Vi amplitude is equal to the reflected wave amplitude, and in phase with it. So the total at the open is 2Vi. At some other point on the line, the phases are different, and so you will plot a standing wave. Good luck Geoff > -----Original Message----- > From: Sitar Moniker [mailto:si_monkey2@xxxxxxxxx] > Sent: 14 September 2004 22:48 > To: si-list@xxxxxxxxxxxxx > Subject: [SI-LIST] Open Termination > > > In SI and HSDD books, they assume that open termination > offers infinite impedance. My understanding is open end line > is exposed to air which has about 377 ohms. > > 1) How do you get infinite impedance for unterminated line? > > 2) Is there any intuitive way to show that voltage at the > open end doubles- other than using math: ref. coeft. = +1? > > __________________________________________________ > Do You Yahoo!? > Tired of spam? Yahoo! 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