[lit-ideas] subcultures or personal cultures?

  • From: Eric Yost <mr.eric.yost@xxxxxxxxx>
  • To: lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: Thu, 17 Jan 2008 13:49:27 -0500

Thinking about the interpermeability of cultures: how cultures are sort of Venn-diagram sets within sets, that "culture" is now more a personal agglomeration of nuance than a regional or national dominant trope.


For example, a piece of piano music is played to a group of Americans and Brits.

*Certain Americans identify it as "My Country Tis of Thee."
*Certain Brits identify it as "God Save the King."
*Certain American and Brits identify it as both.
*Certain Americans and Brits identify it as Beethoven's "Variations on 'God save the King'," WoO 78.
*Certain Americans and Brits identify it as all of the above.
*Certain Americans and Brits don't identify it at all because they are listening to Skinny Puppy or Tony Bennett on their iPods.

Has "culture" become so personal than one may no longer speak of culture in monolithic terms? Has it passed into a phase where one may no longer speak of cultures, subcultures, and countercultures -- but only speak of personal cultures?


Eric


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