Omar writes Honestly, I think that very few contemporary philosophers believe that their arguments possess the certainty of 'demonstration' in the Aristotelian sense. (Other than perhaps in the field of formal logic, to the extent that logic might still be considered a branch of philosophy) It might be flogging a dead horse, here. :) *I wonder why you think that? Some examples really would help. If a philosopher is writing something that she thinks needs putting into formal notation, where that 'something' is meant to be a demonstration of something in a paper or a book, it's an argument that's assessable every bit as much as the examples of (valid) arguments in logic books. •Aristotle, of course, did not have, and did not provide us with anything as powerful as post-Fregean logic. Aristotle's syllogistic is hardly the paradigm of 'logical' reasoning and demonstration. Back to watching the 'new' Sherlock Holmes, on Netflix. Best to one and all. ———————— I thought I sent, just before this, an answer to what John MCreery said about how, if we were honest, we'd characterize what philosophers mostly do. I mentioned Quine v. Grice, Strawson et al, and Newton v. Einstein. Didn't show up. Not in Drafts, not in Sent, not in Trash. I hate Gmail. Hait it, hate it, hate it. RP