[lit-ideas] Re: Was Grice Right?
- From: Jlsperanza@xxxxxxx
- To: lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
- Date: Mon, 18 Mar 2013 12:41:28 -0400 (EDT)
In a message dated 3/18/2013 9:09:41 A.M. UTC-02,
RichardHenninge@xxxxxxxxxxx writes:
Note that the 'was', in "Was Grice right?" IMPLICATES (alla Grice) that he
IS no longer right. Only that he _Was_ right.
Or not.
Indeed, although the issue is indeed slightly more complicated, along
Griceian lines.
He distinguish three logical operators:
The Frege sign, -- /- -- as in "It is raining".
The "!" imperative sign, as in God's mandate: "Let it rain!" or, more
plainly, "Rain!".
--
Finally, according to Grice, there is a logical operator that logicians
hardly focus on. He calls it the 'erotetic' operator (as opposed to the erotic
operator), as in questions,
"Is it raining?"
In symbols: ?p.
As Grice notes, "a question need not include the presupposition that its
answer is relevant".
So, "Was Grice Right?" not only implicates (alla Grice) that he is no
longer right (although there is no logical 'contradiction' in terms of logical
implication or entailment, that Grice WAS, IS, and _will be_ right), but
ALSO that while the answer, "Yes, he was" is expected, this is not logically
entailed.
Grice's example:
""Is the King of France bald?". As asked by Strawson, the question is
absurd."
Cheers,
Speranza
References:
Horwich, "Was Wittgenstein Right?" -- The New York Times ("Entertainments
Section", Column B)
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