[lit-ideas] Re: Universalizability
- From: Julie Krueger <juliereneb@xxxxxxxxx>
- To: lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
- Date: Sat, 16 Mar 2013 01:05:00 -0500
On Thu, Mar 14, 2013 at 3:05 PM, <Jlsperanza@xxxxxxx> wrote:
> The universalizability
> principle enables Hare to avoid the charge of irrationality that is
> usually
> lodged against non-cognitivism , to which his prescriptivism belongs,
>
Could someone enlighten me and tell me what "non-cognativism" and
"prescriptivism" are IN THIS CONTEXT? It seems to me to be specialized
vocabulary in this area of dialogue. If I unwrap the sentence, the blunt
sense is that prescriptivism is somehow a subset of non-ccognitivism,
(...which would, w/out the statement above, be vunlerable to a charge of
irrationaly...).
Julie Campbell
Julie's Music & Language Studio
1215 W. Worley
Columbia, MO 65203
573-881-6889
http://www.facebook.com/JuliesMusicLanguageStudio
Other related posts:
