[lit-ideas] Universalizability

  • From: Jlsperanza@xxxxxxx
  • To: lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: Thu, 14 Mar 2013 16:05:17 -0400 (EDT)

or Universalisability, if you must. -- and  metaphysics... 

In a message dated 3/12/2013 6:02:03 P.M. UTC-02,  wokshevs@xxxxxx writes:
we live in a
post-metaphysical world, as argued  for by such Kantian Constructivists as 
John
Rawls, Christine Korsgaard,  Juergen Habermas and Thomas Scanlon, amongst
others. ... "public  speech/reason" (Rawls) or
"discourse" / "argumentation (Habermas) ought not  to include metaphysical
commitments and arguments (either of a religious or  secular sort) in 
support of
policies and actions since these are not  universalizable.  The father of 
such a
claim I believe is Kant: his  prioritization of moral law over conceptions 
of
the good/authentic life, and  the differentiation of "public reason" from
"private reason."  


-----
 
I was trying to expand on the alleged reason why metaphysical commitments  
and arguments SHOULD not be included in "discourse" in support of policies 
and  actions "since these are not universalizable".
 
It may do to revise what the wiki says about this long word, below.
 
Cheers,
 
Speranza
 
_http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Universalizability_ 
(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Universalizability) 
 
and from Blackwell:
 
"The idea that moral judgments should be universalizable can be traced to  
the Golden Rule and Kant 's ethics. In the twentieth century it was 
elaborated  by Hare and became a major thesis of his prescriptivism. The 
principle 
states  that all moral judgments are universalizable in the sense that if it 
is right  for a particular person A to do an action X, then it must likewise 
be right to  do X for any person exactly like A, or like A in the relevant 
respects.  Furthermore, if A is right in doing X in this situation, then it 
must be right  for A to do X in other relevantly similar situations. Hare 
takes this feature to  be an essential feature of moral judgments. An ethical 
statement is the issuance  of a universal prescription. Universalizability 
is not the same as generality ,  for a moral judgment can be highly specific 
and detailed and need not be general  or simple. The universalizability 
principle enables Hare to avoid the charge of  irrationality that is usually 
lodged against non-cognitivism , to which his  prescriptivism belongs, and his 
theory is thus a great improvement on emotivism.  “I have been maintaining 
that the meaning of the word ‘ought’ and other moral  words is such that a 
person who uses them commits himself thereby to a universal  rule. This is 
the thesis of universalizability.”".
 
------------------------------------------------------------------
To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off,
digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html

Other related posts: