eric, no professor here.the simple answer is no. 1. there is no regress at all in Russell's proof (to repeat: the proof meant to and succeeded in showing that a contradiction is derivable from ax V of G. Frege's Grundlagen), what you derive is a statement of the form [a & (not a)] where a is a proposition expressible in any which way you like. There is no regress at all. 2.I'm unclear as to what degree means here. Generally a contradiction is any statement that has truth conditions such that they map into falsehood in any possible world whatsoever (so that while it could be that I were working in Peru [there is a possible world that makes it true], it could not be that I am not I [unless you believe there are possible worlds without identity] This is the understanding we have. I am aware that some people (Hegel famously) use "contradiction" in an illogical way. it is not a serious harm, since they decided to name conflicts as contradictions, hence it is trivial in such a case to find contradictions everywhere.
3. Aporia, honestly I have no idea of what you ask, is it whether is aporia a contradiction in Greek thinking? or something else? On Fri, 26 Jun 2009, Eric Yost wrote:
Prof. Palma: the Russellian set (which gave so much grief to Frege's V ax) is the set of all set which aren't members of themselves. Contradiction follows.An aside: are there different kinds of contradiction? Contradiction used here postulates an infinite regress. Is this the same *kind* of contradiction one would find in division by zero? Or the square-root of negative one? After all, i is very useful. Do philosophers distinguish degrees of contradiction? Where does aporia fit in?Perplexed, Eric ------------------------------------------------------------------ To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html
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