Remember Rodney King? I believe the officers in question were ultimately found innocent but let's imagine that they had mercilessly beaten Rodney when he had ceased to resist. They had every power to do that. They had absolutely no right to do that. I've been wading through the seemingly endless series of posts on this topic and I cannot begin to understand how there can be no semantic difference between "power" and "right". Guess I'm just having a really dense day. Julie Krueger ========Original Message======== Subj: [lit-ideas] Re: Paying taxes for months on end Date: 5/28/05 2:39:25 P.M. Central Daylight Time From: _andreas@xxxxxxxxxxxx (mailto:andreas@xxxxxxxxxxx) To: _lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx (mailto:lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx) Sent on: > "I 'have the power to' vote and I have the right to vote." > > The two are semantically equivalent. Yes, these are equivalent when "power" is meant as "empowered", i.e., authorized. Having the right to do something is also the same as being empowered to do something. yrs, andreas www.andreas.com ------------------------------------------------------------------ To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html ------------------------------------------------------------------ To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html