[lit-ideas] Re: Ownership and the possessive case

  • From: Jlsperanza@xxxxxxx
  • To: lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: Wed, 6 May 2009 07:40:44 EDT

In a message dated 5/6/2009 5:51:49 A.M. Eastern Daylight Time,  
cblists@xxxxxxxx writes:
That (use of) the possessive case implies ownership  may or may not be  
contradicted by the following (counter)examples  (taken from  
Hegglewith's well-known short story, "Filibuster's  Folly"):
Chris Bruce,
almost at his wit's end, in
Kiel,  Germany


----


Well, first of all allow me to congratulate  you for your stamina in 
remaining in the list.
As Walter O. said, the list will be 'all the worse' if you left. 
And as D. Ritchie commented, a shame.
I too want to be collegiate, but I can be carried away. I also would wish  
to see more of P. Stone. The fact that someone overposts (as you may call 
it)  take it positively. I'm learning NOT to introduce new threads and be in 
general  more moderate. To me, to reply is a sign of courtesy, not because I 
want to eat  like a pike. 
----- Etc.
 
 
---- In the case of the possessive, it's a very good point, motivated by  
the title,
 
               "Wittgenstein's Poker".

It is my idea (or was) that the author was going over the top. But  
possibly there are _no_ other ways of expressing the thing. He did possess it  
for 
the time being. It's a functional thing in a public room (H3, King's), he  
was fulfilling a social function (keeping a fire). Actions can be 
misinterpreted  (especially with pointed objects -- This is remarked in 
"Memoirs of the 
Duchess  of Devonshire", 'The way that commoner holds the knife with the 
venison makes  you feel she is next going to stab you or something -- table 
manners are a thing  of the past. And she keeps saying stupid things 
brandishing the knife on her  left hand. Is she idiotic?").
 
I would lay the blame on grammarians. It was possible some  
post-Aristotelian (all grammar is post-Aristotelian) for the use of  
'possessive'. I 
haven't analysed this. It is a pronoun or adjective. In  Spanish,
 
      mi     nuestro
      tu       vuestro
      su     vuestra
 
with the confusion on non-native speakers on what to say if many feminine  
people own many feminine things (gender affects the possessive form). 
Agreement  is with the object possessed, but some respect for the possessor has 
to 
be taken  into account.

Then there's the _genitive_ really. The romance languages lost the  
sophisticated (too sophisticated) Roman case:
 
        Mariae virginitas
 
but at one point they did find it confusing enough
 
        Dei amor
 
or 
 
        timor enemicorum
 
The "love of god" or the "fear of the enemies". Introducing, in a twink (if 
 that's the expression) to Chomsky ages later), the 'subjective' vs. 
objective  genitive. Which relies on logical form underlying the utterance. Who 
does the  ----ing?
 
Now, in the third declension of the Roman and the Greek (and indeed in  
proto-Indoeuropean as a whole I believe) the mark of the genitive was a  liquid.
 
    "Socratis"
 
"Socratis amor"
"Socratis timor"
etc.
 
Sometime during the early Middle Ages, the Italians started to use 'de',  
which they spelled 'di' for that,
 
         amor di Socrates
         timor di  Socrates
 
-- and the rest is prepositional history. The Italians are subtle enough to 
 distinguish 'di' and 'da':
 
       Francesca DA Rimini
 
--- I would think that was a 'de' but I fail to see where the vowel 'a'  
originates. It would be in Latin, Francesca Riminiana, English Francesca OFF  
Rimini. The use of 'of' in English derives indeed from 'off', so I try not 
to  use it since it can turn off a few of my interlocutors. Also it's rude. 
(The  fact that you pronounce it /ov/ and not /of/ is neither here nor there).
 
--- But the English did keep, like the German, and possibly Dutch, but I  
forget) the genitive as a case, with the liquid:
 
        Mary's lamb  (----> Mary  had a little lamb)
 
                                       -- for breakfast?
                                       -- she delivered it? "Miracles in 
obstetricians")
                                      --  or the lamb that owned Mary -- 
"That lamb has the virtue
                                                 of _possessing_ Mary in 
all of Mary's respects".
 
--- So it's "Wittgenstein's Poker" with a GENITIVE, rather than a  
POSSESSIVE, I would think. It's casus genitivus. Possibly in Greek some  
reference 
to 'genos', meaning 'origin', cfr. Genesis. 
 
Why 'genitive'? How can Wittgenstein _generate_ the poker? This is  
confusing. "My chillum" is not a genitive", it's a possessive. But if I say,  
"Geary's son", one can say that Geary generated him (the son).
 
* Incidentally, Sarah Jessica Parker is having surrogate twins -- will they 
 be 'her' twins as in 'genitive'? The woman says, "I have no time to get a 
belly  and then spend 4 months losing it". 
 
Will she _generate_ the twins?
 
---
 
Perhaps the idea is not 'origin' but 'kind', genos, genus. As if 'of a  
kind'. So, perhaps what we could also expand on or analyse is the use of the  
'genitive'. 
 
Orthography here is misleading. The correct form would be
 
         Wittgensteins poker
 
-- as it would be in German, or Dutch. The alternate spelling
 
         "Wittgenstein's  poker"
 
is confusing in that _sometimes_ a vowel, notably the schwa, which  
dominates English speech, _is_ elided. But in this case I don't think is  
necessary. 
 
In proto-Indoeuropean, I believe it was always the vowel "i" plus the 's'  
-- "-is". So if Somone were to translate Tractatus logico-philosophicus to 
Latin  complete with genitive of authorship it would go:
 
         Wittgensteinis Tractatus  Logico-Philosophicus
 
-- I would think.

The excerpts from the short story very good. Worth analysing case by  case. 
And perhaps re-thinking them in terms of 'genitive' direct case or the  
alternate clumsy 'of' construction which underlies the modern romance mark of  
what used to be the genitive case.
 
The idea of 'ownership' is important philosophically too in that Strawson  
denied it when it comes to the 'concept of a person', ('no-ownership' theory 
I  think his is called). 
 
S. Johnson was I think fascinated with another misuse of the 'possessive'  
situation:
 
                 Mary's got blue eyes
 
---  The implicature of this very bad English phrasing meaning that  she 
did obtained those artificial contact lenses in Miami.
 
Cheers,
 
J. L. Speranza
   Buenos Aires, Argentina
 
**************Remember Mom this Mother's Day! Find a florist near you now. 
(http://yellowpages.aol.com/search?query=florist&ncid=emlcntusyelp00000006)
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