[lit-ideas] Re: Ownership and the possessive case

  • From: Jlsperanza@xxxxxxx
  • To: lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: Wed, 6 May 2009 19:59:03 EDT

In a message dated 5/6/2009 7:13:32 P.M. Eastern  Daylight Time, 
donalmcevoyuk@xxxxxxxxxxx writes:
it's humorous ... That  Wittgenstein may have taken this as a personal 
insult of some kind is of course  possible. It may also be that Wittgenstein 
had 
a disdainful view of Popper's  intellect and found the whole fiasco tested 
his patience beyond endurance).  

----  

I see.
 
There are two defenses here. One for Popper, one for Witters.
 
For Popper.
 
I grant it _is_ difficult, out of the blue, to provide an example of this  
or that. I think Bertie is to blame here. If the question did include 
anything  like the report:
 
  "his now famous response to Chairman 
   Russell's request for an example of 
   moral rule under the heading of ethics."
 
Shouldn't that be "an example of _a_ moral rule..."?
 
Also I find the repetition of 'moral' and 'ethics' otiose.
 
In Russell's defence, the tone mattered. D. S. M. Wilson (who studied  
under Grice) calls this 'pretense 'scare quote' ironic tone':
 
    Bertie:  And what would _be_, in your opinion, a,  as you call them
               _moral  rule_ under the 'heading' of, as you call it, ethics?
 
I suppose Sir Karl just came up with what he had in view: a  poker-attacker.
 
Mind, possibly those profs laughed. A lot of teachers _work_ for the  
laughs. So, Witters could possibly have felt _doubly_ insulted by the Popper  
fiasco in providing a more thought-out example, and the fact that he was being  
made the laughing stock of people.
 
Perhaps he was expecting something like:
 
      "Sodomy is not a bad thing after all, in the  proper setting".
 
etc.
 
------
 
Popper and Witters were thinking of 'regeln' (rules) but 'moral rule' is an 
 oxymoron in English. There are no rules of the moral game. It's not a 
game. 
 
Note that however specific, Popper's example was _too_ specific. It is not  
addressed to rational agents (per se) but 'members of the class of people 
who  feel at home in Room H-3, with a poker'. As I said earlier, 'threaten' 
is not a  verb that may play a role in a 'moral rule'. It's _hate_ speech, or 
at most. A  threat has to be an act. If he was _insinuating_ that someone 
in the room  (holding a poker) was being _threatening_ it _is_ an insult, and 
no rule of the  'moral game' is going to 'tone down' the agitation. 
 
    "You don't threaten people like that".
 
Were they thinking Witters was a _boy_ that needed reprimanding?
 
Now, if the 'moral' rule wants to be given some sense, suppose I organise a 
 party in H-3, and the visiting lecturer is a homophobic racist pig 
chauvinist of  a water-board torturer'.
 
Is 'threaten' _always_ wrong? I can imagine someone saying:
 
    "You've just unloaded the biggest load of crap I heard  and 
     you're not going to get away with murder. I  threaten
     more insidious actions unless you shut up  _NOW_."
 
Cheers,
 
JLS
 
 
 
**************Remember Mom this Mother's Day! Find a florist near you now. 
(http://yellowpages.aol.com/search?query=florist&ncid=emlcntusyelp00000006)
------------------------------------------------------------------
To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off,
digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html

Other related posts: