[lit-ideas] Re: Is 'All men are mortal' unscientific?

  • From: Robert Paul <rpaul@xxxxxxxx>
  • To: lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: Fri, 14 Mar 2008 22:54:05 -0700

Phil wrote

This quote may be in the context of a discussion of what counts as
scientific and what doesn't, surely a pointless discussion in and of
itself since there is nothing that makes a statement scientific, but
it is wrong, in several ways, to claim that the sentence 'All men are
mortal' means 'there is a time t such that x dies at t'.  First, it is
sloppy in that the word 'mortal' has a meaning beyond simply dying.

I agree with Phil that an everyday sentence isn't't transformed into a 'philosophical sentence' by stipulation (and what would one stipulate, besides that?). Ordinary people like me don't like to have their language messed with; they're still worrying about which goes where in the case of 'this' and 'that,' which a man I met in a bar once said was a metaphysical question if there ever was one. He was right. It stumped both of us.

I was really worried though about Quine's definition. Surely, 'All men are mortal' doesn't readily translate into a proposition about only one x. One would hope that the original version there was a universal quantifier, 'For all x, if x is a man, and so on and so on…' Moreover, in the sentence provided by Phil, x might, for all we're told, range over rocks, books, or cheap plastic razors.

Robert Paul
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