[lit-ideas] "In the tradition of Kantotle"

  • From: Jlsperanza@xxxxxxx
  • To: lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: Mon, 28 Jun 2004 09:50:30 EDT

In a message dated 6/28/2004 9:36:02 AM Eastern Standard Time,  
phil.enns@xxxxxxxxxxx writes:
In  another post, Walter states that he prefers to understand phronesis
in  Kantian rather than Aristotelian terms and I was wondering whether
he, or  anyone else, would be willing to expand on what the important
differences  are and why the Kantian version is to be  preferred.

I don't think there is much of a difference.

When philosopher Jonathan Bennett reviewed the Grice festschrift  
(Grandy/Warner, PGRICE, Philosophical Grounds of Rationality: Intentions,  
Ends) for the Times Literary Supplement, he titled it -- after  Grice's 
'favourite philosopher', "In the tradition of Kantotle".
Jokes apart, there must be a unity of thought between Aristotle and Kant,  
since such combos ("Kantotle") do not seem too obvious in the case of any other 
pair of philosophers?
Aristotle's 'phronesis' comes out as Kant's 'prudence', and so on.

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