[lit-ideas] Re: Hartiana

  • From: "" <dmarc-noreply@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> (Redacted sender "Jlsperanza@xxxxxxx" for DMARC)
  • To: lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: Wed, 25 Mar 2015 07:19:56 -0400

My last post today!
 
One advantage of Grice's legal philosophy over Hart's legal philosophy (as  
much as Grice loved Hart) is that Grice concocted the idea of 
disimplicature,  i.e. the phenomenon of utterers MEANING less than they say.
 
Hart knew this, when he elaborated on the crucial distinction  between:
 
a. Smith was obliged to do it.
 
b. Smith was obligated to do it.

Only (a) is factive, Hart notes, i.e. it entails "Smith did it". (b) is  
not factive, since, well, it reports a 'legal' scenario, and there's no need 
for  Smith to have done anything (the law that obligated Smith may be unfair 
and  Smith is right in disobeying it). 
 
Still, some utterers, Grice noted, fail to make the important Hartian  
distinction oblige/obligate.
 
Suppose you rent a house at the beach. When you enter the house, you (the  
addressee, in Grice's parlance) see a list tacked to the wall, labeled "The  
Rules of the House." 
 
It does not read "The Legal Laws", which would be illiterate.
 
The list reads: 

1. No smoking. 
2. Take the trash out when  you leave, please.
3. Do not use the garbage disposal. It doesn’t really  work. 
4. Check-out is 11:00 AM. If you stay longer, you will be charged for  an 
additional night’s stay. 
5. Have fun!
NB: The property manager is authorised to enforce the rules of the house by 
 adding appropriate charges to your bill.

As it happens, you check out at 11:05. 
 
The property manager (utterer), as you are about to pay, utters:
 
i. Look, I don’t think this is fair.
But: 
I am OBLIGATED to  charge you an additional night’s rent. Those are the 
rules of the  house.

The Griceian question to Hart's problem is: is the property  manager (qua 
Griceian utterer) telling the addressee that he has a LEGAL "rental  house" 
OBLIGATION to charge you an additional night’s rent? 

Some find  it, naturally, difficult to imagine that he is, as there are 
much more plausible  ways to interpret what he explicitly communicates. 

To start, the property manager (qua Griceian utterer) might think  that he 
is LEGALLY obligated to do something he regards as unfair. 

The  utterer might think that the OWNER of the house has the legal right to 
set the  charge and the conditions for imposing it. 

That is, the utterer might  see himself as more or less a bookkeeper in the 
matter. 

If this is the  property manager’s view, he might add, 

ii. I’m sorry. I’m just  doing my job.

Another Griceian qualification is that the  property manager MEANS (in 
Grice's sense) to communicate ('signify', or, again,  'mean') that he is merely 
OBLIGED (but hardly LEGALLY obligated) to add the  charge. 
 
The property manager, qua Griceian utterer, is engaging in what Grice calls 
 a 'disimplicature': he is plainly meaning less than he says -- or  
explicitly communicates -- were the property manager sensitive enough to Hart's 
 
distinction between oblige and obligate -- 
 
That is, the property manager (qua Griceian utterer) might be  trying to 
say that he is adding the charge to the bill, his reason (and  motivation) 
being that he does not DESIRE (a psychological state) to risk  reproach from 
the property owner for failing to do so. 

If this is the property manager’s view, should add, to make his  
disimplicature obvious: 

iii. I’m sorry. I need to keep my job." 

(rather than ii. I'm just doing my job;  or iv. Those are the legal  rules 
of the house. -- If he says the 'legal laws' he is SURELY illiterate -- or  
loves a tautology -- cfr. 'rules and regulations') 
 
In other words, since Hart offered his devastating critique of the  
jurisprudentialist (not the philosopher) John Austin, legal philosophers have  
been 
careful to guard this a distinction between being legally obligated  and 
merely being just obliged, and helpfully so. 

However, there is no reason to think that your average property  manager 
(even if it's in East Hampton, where they CAN be punctilious) is  being 
CONVERSATIONALLY punctilious about Hart's distinction.
 
(Similarly, Grice regretted that utterers were now using "I will" meaning  
"I shall" "and vice versa" -- and he longed for the days of the 
Graeco-Romans  were the subtleties of optional forms of verbs "provided 
utterers with a 
broad  range of conversational options"). 
 
Austin once told Grice: "Look it up in the dictionary".
 
Grice responded: "I give a hoot what the dictionary says".
 
Austin reprimanded: "You mean you don't give one".
 
Grice said, "Whatever". And he was right. Since the Oxford English  
Dictionary became the Modern English Dictionary (it does not register ALL uses  
of 
lexical items, just 'modern' ones) it can hardly help the Griceian. Note for 
 example, that 'obligate' is DEFINED as 'oblige':
 
to OBLIGATE:
I) to bind a person morally
II) to put a person under  moral obligation
III) to constrain
IV) to compel
---> V) to  oblige.
 
Lexicographers are not conceptual analysts like Hart or Grice so the  
oblige-obligate distinction still holds (in the conceptual analyses of Hart and 
 
Grice -- cfr. Grice on the imply-implicate distinction). 

So as Grice rightly points out, there is a degree of indeterminacy  in the 
property manager-qua-Griceian utterer's implicature and  disimplicature, as 
it should. 
 
The oblige-obligated distinction hasn't either filtered into 'common'  
usage, which is just fine, since neither Grice nor Hart ain't common! 

But we can derive further complications in the analysis that  Hart's and 
Grice's approach should help us with. 

The property manager can navigate the situation that he is in  without 
supposing that the rules of the house give rise to their own distinct  domain 
of 
"normativity", or that they have a point of view on how he should  behave. 
And because the property manager has no need for those  notions, it would be 
odd for us to employ them when we interpret his claim that  he’s LEGALLY 
OBLIGATED to charge an additional night’s rent. 

But we  can still flip the scenario slightly. Suppose you check out late 
and  that the property manager tells you:

v. I am OBLIGATED to charge you  an additional night’s rent. 

This time, however, he adds, by way of what  Grice would have 
'cancellation', and Hart, 'defeasibility':

vi. I am NOT going to impose that charge because I think it unfair.  

Is the property manager (qua Gricean utterer) invoking a special  sort of 
normativity, unique to the rental house? 

Once again, one  may be sceptical, since there are much more plausible ways 
to interpret  what he explicitly communicates (or 'means', in Grice's 
usage). As before, the  property manager might think that given his role, he IS 
LEGALLY OBLIGATED to do  what the owner of the house has instructed him to 
do, whether or not he thinks  it fair. 

If he is right, in refusing to impose the charge, he’s failing  to live up 
to the responsibility of the role. That may be unwarranted, but  it’s a 
failing that is easy to understand, as people all the time feel conflicts  
between the roles they occupy and the decisions they would make if freed from  
the constraints of the role. 

But of course, there is another Griceian  way to make sense of what the 
property manager says. 

In referring to his  LEGAL obligation to impose the charge, he might just 
mean to indicate that he  feels compelled (obliged -- even though he did say 
'obligated') to do so, even  though he plans to resist. 

Of course, we’d need to know more about the situation to know how best to  
interpret the property manager's utterer's meaning. 

But once again, the property manager can navigate the situation without  
supposing that the Rules of the House generate a special sort of normativity, 
or  even quasi-normativity, and because he can, we can, too. 

We could go on,  making these examples ever more complicated and law-like. 
At every step, there  would be moral and prudential upshots to the social 
facts that constitute the  situation.  However, there is no reason to think 
that we would arrive at a  point where we would have to posit a distinctive 
class of LEGAL "rental house"  OBLIGATIONS to make sense of the situation. 
There is no reason to think  that we would have to attribute a point of view to 
a sign or a set of rules. And  that should give us pause. 
If we don’t need recourse to these ideas to  understand the ways that 
people engage the rules posted in a rental house, maybe  we don’t need to 
appeal 
to them to understand the ways that people engage law. 
 
Which is Hart's point.
 
Grice once analysed the implicature of
 
"NO TRESPASSING"
 
A) You shall not cross the barrier.
B) Don't cross the barrier.
 
He found that the way to tackle those utterances involved what he conceived 
 as the exhibitive-protreptic distinction. In the protreptic utterance 
(like (B)  -- as when we use 'oblige', or 'obliged' -- the reference is 
psychological -- to  motives (and motivations -- cfr. rules and regulations), 
and 
notably DESIRES --  on whose part? On the part of the utterer, primarily. But 
in a protreptic  utterance, there is an embedded reference to the 
addressee's psychological  states, too. A protreptic utterance is meant to 
_move_ the 
addressee. And move  him how? Grice is explicit about this: via the 
self-reflective recognition on  the part of the addressee that it is the 
utterer's 
desire that the addressee  should ADOPT a corresponding desire, in this case, 
of not trespassing. 
 
To 

A. You shall not cross the barrier.
and

B. Do not cross the barrier.
 
we may add the archaic 
 
C. Thou shalt cross the barrier. 
D. Thou wilt cross the barrier.
E. (Thou) cross the barrier!
 
Grice says that the imperative - is "protreptic" while the "shall" form is  
merely "exhibitive" of the utterer's intention. A protreptic  utterance 
Griice defines as one "by which the utterer intends, via  imparting the belief 
that he has a certain psychological attitude, to  INDUCE a corresponding 
attitude in the addressee", and surely there is both a  moral and legal side to 
protrepsis that makes it stronger than mere exhibition  (even if logically, 
a protreptic utterance is ALSO at least exhibitive of the  utterer's 
psychological attitude). Grice expands on this in his third book,  "Aspects of 
Reason" where he has "Op1a" Volitive -- A cases intentional, B cases  
imperative" -- cfr. boulomaic" and how it all fits in varieties of practical  
reason, 
both moral and legal. 
 
Hart and Grice have shown how subtle and concerned with intricacies of  
conceptual analysis the interface between 'linguistic' philosophy and legal  
philosophy can be!
 
Cheers,
 
Speranza
 
 
 
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