[lit-ideas] Re: Euthyphro & Habermas

  • From: "Mike Geary" <atlas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • To: <lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • Date: Sat, 16 Dec 2006 17:38:52 -0600

So the distinction in today's verbiage might be more meaningfully translated as "officially" and "personally"? Having once been an authority figure -- a high school teacher -- I found myself at times having to uphold (verbally at least) school rules that were observed only by the most timid and scrupulous students. Occasionally on lunch duty -- one detail of which was to patrol the school grounds -- a timid/scrupulous student or two would come and ask me if they could leave campus to go to the corner market (there was always a steady stream of students to the store that no teacher so far as I knew had ever tried to interdict). Of course I could not, as a school official, say "yes" without assuming possibly enormous legal consequences, and so I would, of course, say "no" even as the stream of students walked by shouting hello's. Now what I want to know is: How come some people just don't catch on? Are they inveterate Kantians?!!!!!!


Mike Geary
Memphis




----- Original Message ----- From: "Phil Enns" <phil.enns@xxxxxxxxxxx>
To: <lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
Sent: Saturday, December 16, 2006 3:09 PM
Subject: [lit-ideas] Re: Euthyphro & Habermas


Walter Okshevsky wrote:

"I haven't come across that essay by H., I don't think. Could you give us
the reference?"

"Religion in the Public Sphere", _European Journal of Philosophy_, 14:1


Walter:

"When you say that the essay 'is essentially ....', do you mean that H
himself states that that's what he's doing or is it your take on what he is
doing in that essay?"

It is my take on the essay.


Walter:

"Btw, Kant's distinction between public and private reason has always seemed
counter-intuitive to me. What we normally understand by 'public', he takes
to be 'private.' Do you have a short but accurate account of the
difference?"

It is a matter of freedom. Take, for example, the U.S. generals who have in
the last few years commented on the Iraq war.  When they are still in the
service, they must consider their role within the military so that when they
speak, they speak as representatives of the U.S. military.  However, when
they retire, these individuals speak as individuals and often say things
they would not have said, were they still serving.  According to Kant, the
general who addresses the troops is constrained by their role as general and therefore is not speaking from freedom, hence privately. The general is not speaking to anyone who might overhear what is said, but instead addresses a particular audience within a determined context. However, when that general retires and writes an op-ed piece expressing personal convictions regarding the war, the individual is speaking to anyone who might read the piece. As
a general, this person may be addressing tens of thousands of people, but
what is said is addressed to that particular audience for a particular
determined purpose, and therefore private.  As an individual, the person's
op-ed may only be read by a few hundred people, but what is said is
addressed to anyone who bothers to read the piece, and therefore public.

The issue is whether one has one's freedom constrained by acting within a
determined role.  It doesn't matter what the general says, what matters is
whether it is in the service of being a general, or an individual. So, the
same is true of preachers, bureaucrats, teachers, etc.

Obviously Kant does not think that private reasoning is a bad thing.
Rather, his argument is that for an enlightened society, there must be a
sphere where people can speak freely, publicly.  The general, preacher,
mayor, professor, etc., must have the ability to speak apart from their
roles as general, preacher, mayor, professor, etc.

I take the relevance of the public/private reasoning distinction for Kant's
account of morality to be obvious so I won't go on.


Sincerely,

Phil Enns
Glen Haven, NS


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