I should have asked this before, I suppose. Why "Hannah" but "Kant"? ----- Original Message ----- From: <wokshevs@xxxxxx> To: <lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>; "Ed Farrell" <ewf@xxxxxxxxxxx> Sent: Tuesday, August 22, 2006 8:21 PM Subject: [lit-ideas] Re: *Eichmann in Jerusalem* > > Many thanks to Ed for a very informative post. It gives me some meat to gnaw on > until the book makes it to my mailbox. But I'm hoping that Ed or anyone will > put his or their humility aside and take a stab at making some sense of > Hannah's idea that judgements of right and wrong regarding particular > historical events or individual subjects can be made without appeal to general > principles, rules or concepts, as per Kant's "reflective judgement" (Third > Critique). This seems impossible to me (and should have so seemed to Kant as > well); I don't know why Hannah ever saw the question as a sensible one. Any > examples of such judgements that anyone cares to offer will be appreciated (if > not accepted.) > ------------------------------------------------------------------ To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html