Thanks to R. Paul for his comments. >A barbarian was originally simply a non-Greek, so-called because >of his unintelligible speech: barbarbarbar...and so on. >'Barbarian' was originally neutral I would be cautious there. Do you think it can possibly be (in Greek at least) a neutral value-oriented expression? (I'm using the turn of phrase, "value-oriented" in the precise use of Grice, in "Reply to Richards"). I should consult the Liddell-Scott for early recorded uses of 'barbaros'. The typical Gricean scenario I can think of (for this Grecian context) would be: 1. Communication between human beings is a valuable thing. 2. These people before me say, 'barbarbarbar" 3. That is, to me, unintelligible. 4. And that in the strong _sense_ that it is not possible (conceivable) that I will understand him (let's singularize the 'barbarian', and call him, to please Ritchie, "Conan". 3. Yet, I'm calling him "Gobbledee-Gook" in a totally neutral fashion. When was it, Ritchie, that "barbarian" became a _positively_ value-oriented term in the Highlands? In the time of Ossian? Cheers, JL ************************************** See what's new at http://www.aol.com