[lit-ideas] Re: Beg to differ, say, about fractals

  • From: palma <palma@xxxxxxxx>
  • To: lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: Thu, 16 Dec 2010 07:41:25 -0500 (EST)

On Thu, 16 Dec 2010, Donal McEvoy wrote:


--- On Thu, 16/12/10, Robert Paul <rpaul@xxxxxxxx> wrote:

Newton's laws of motion work perfectly well within a limited domainÿÿgetting spacecraft into 
orbit around the earth, etc.ÿÿyet we now think we know that they do not obtain at the 
sub-atomic level; whether they obtain in the remoter (a not entirely unbiased word) regions of space 
we aren't sure. Still, electromagnetic waves reach us from regions beyond Newton's ken, and we assume 
that whatever stuff is out there there is subatomic activity in it. Newton knew that there were no 
perfectly spherical objects or frictionless surfaces on earth, yet his laws are still good (wherever 
they are good) despite that. The laws of falling bodies were derived from observations of how 
comparatively rough-hewn objects behaved under certain conditions.>

This, so far, seems entirely consistent with the view that Newton's laws remain 
a good approximation within certain limits and still work well within those 
limits if considered as instruments of prediction but are nevertheless false, 
and _falsified_, as universal laws. This view is Popper's view.

Popper admits theories are instruments and may be considered as such [as we 
might admit knives are weapons] but for him they are not merely instruments and 
to be considered as such [knives are not just weapons]. As an instrument, for 
most practical purposes Newton's laws may be most useful, and indeed more 
useful than Einstein's theories because they are more manageable. This does not 
make them true.

I had written:-
"As to why these laws must apply throughout the universe, the simple answer is that they would lack the 
character of universal laws if they did not. A more sophisticated answer is that if, say, we found that there 
was a portion of the universe where the 'invariant' did not apply [where perhaps it appeared that 
"E=mc4" and "2+2=35"], the invariant would be falsified as a universal law; we would have 
to abandon it as a law altogether or explain why the structural invariant was limited in its application so 
that those limitations themselves were explained in invariant terms."

The implication is clearly that where Newton's theories break down we want to 
explain this using a deeper theory that contains Newton's theories as a 
remarkably successful yet nevertheless false approximation.

Robert goes on to say, among other things, that:-
"This doesn't mean that when we speak Euclidean we're making contingent statements 
about purely mathematical forms. Statements 'inside' mathematics are tautologies, no 
matter whether one uses a base-ten numbering system or some other, and if one uses some 
other, if A is using our usual decimal system and Sally some other system, the results of 
counting a finite number of objects ought to agree."

This raises the question of whether "Statements 'inside' mathematics are tautologies". For example, does "7 + 5 = 12" by virtue of the meaning of "7", "5" and "12" and 
"+" and "="? So that when we know the meaning of these terms we know the truth of "7 + 5 = 12" as a tautology. If this is Robert's view, then I hope to say more on this subsequently. But of course to 
say "Statements 'inside' mathematics are tautologies" does not explain what definition of tautology is being offered and it may be Robert does not use tautology so that "7 + 5 = 12" is tautologically true by 
virtue of the meaning of "7", "5" and "12" and "+" and "=".

Robert concludes on this interesting point:-

"*****

There are five dots just above this sentence. There's no way to radicalize 
mathematical schemes so that there are more or fewer than five. So, a different 
mathematical scheme may use different terms and sometimes different operators, but 
whatever the result of counting or enumerating these dots yields 'mathematically' 
(whatever that might mean) 'in a different system,' its expression must be 
equivalent to five. (Taking a stand.)"

Perhaps I have misunderstood, but I am not sure the conclusion "its expression must be equivalent to five" strictly follows. What might 
strictly follow is that "its expression will not be inconsistent with the expression 'five'". I say this because we could have a 
mathematical scheme consisting only of 'one' and 'more than one'. In this scheme the "five dots" could only be expressed as "dots of 
'more than one'". Here 'more than one' is not _equivalent_ to "five", and need not be; but we may say that if "dots of 'more than 
one'" is true then it must not be inconsistent with the truth that there are "five dots".

Donal
London

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  Ratio, enim, nisi judex universalis esse deberet, frustra singulis datur.

  [ _Quaestiones Naturales_, Adelard of Bath ]



Signora granda, testa che massa
massa ne passa, che quasi schissa,
Dia dei sostegni de cese e palassi
Dia de le taje che su ne tien fissi
Dia de le onde che le ne fa grassi,
ne ingrassa de ogni grassia, Dia Venessia -

aàh Venessia aàh Venàssia aàh Venùsia

Andrea Zanzotto, Filò, (Sezione: Recitativo Veneziano)

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