I was referring to this: "The murder rates of the U.S. and U.K. are also affected by differences in the way each counts homicides. The FBI asks police to list every homicide as murder, even if the case isn't subsequently prosecuted or proceeds on a lesser charge, making the U.S. numbers as high as possible. By contrast, the English police "massage down" the homicide statistics, tracking each case through the courts and removing it if it is reduced to a lesser charge or determined to be an accident or self-defense, making the English numbers as low as possible." From this: <http://www.reason.com/0211/fe.jm.gun.shtml> http://www.reason.com/0211/fe.jm.gun.shtml Someone, maybe Judy, said it was the other way around and I don't have any additional info at this point. Lawrence -----Original Message----- From: lit-ideas-bounce@xxxxxxxxxxxxx [mailto:lit-ideas-bounce@xxxxxxxxxxxxx] On Behalf Of Robert Paul Sent: Wednesday, May 31, 2006 12:00 PM To: lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx Subject: [lit-ideas] Re: Assault Crimes > To Paul Stone: In one of the articles I posted there was indication > that the U.S. looks worse in the murder category because it counts > every homicide as a murder whereas, apparently, other nations count > them as other things. I don't understand this. Who in the US counts every homicide as murder? Some government agency? The criminal justice system doesn't count every homicide as murder. I mean, to what does 'it' refer? Robert Paul ------------------------------------------------------------------ To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html